Trinity DebateBefore Abraham Was,I AMAineo wrote: as i've clearly shown you already (which you have NO answer to) is that we have to interpret scripture. so the easy answer to your question is "yes". we DO have to interpret what scripture says. and if you're challenging me with the word "one", then i wonder how you interpret the words "Alpha and Omega" referring to Jesus in Revelations. you do the same things you accuse me of. not at all. clearly you don't understand this issue and are making an attempt at obfuscation, just like most Jehovah's Witnesses. The "one" itself IS one. i'm not denying that. but just because something is under that category of "one", doesn't mean that it has to be a singularity. like i said, "One" community. there's "one" in one sense, and more than "one" in another sense. and many Jehovah's Witnesses have made an even worse mistake (which is the same mistake that you're makin') by denying the Divinity of Jesus. your silly little analogies are unimpressive. and none of that helps your case because you're STILL misunderstanding the position. you're arguing against a strawman. first, i said that's how GOD views it. secondly, the fact that David had 9 wives demonstrates God's reasoning in this for us. how can you be "one flesh" with someone, if you're already "one flesh" with someone else. marriage to one person is good, and multiple is not. i could ask you the same question: "how could David be 'one flesh' with 9 wives?" correct. but this moves us neither HERE NOR THERE. you don't understand the position, so all these arguments that you're making are wrongheaded. according to God, in a married couple there's "one flesh" and yet two people. how do you explain that? you go too far with that. i deny scripture as much as you deny it. we both affirm it and hold it above all else, the only difference being that you interpret it one way, and i another. while your position is demonstrably false, mine is demonstrably true. so don't come with any more nonsense about how i deny scripture. i don't, and you know i don't. just like you don't. yeah it does (John 10:30). really? because in John 1:1 we see that the Word was with God (distinct from Him), and that He WAS God. so how could God's "power" be distinct from Him if it's one of His infinite attributes? and conversely, how could God's "power" BE God? yes they most certainly do, in plain terms. and Jesus doing what the Father told Him does not deny His Divinity. you sound like a Muslim. isn't that interesting. notice how you completely ignored what i was going after with that argument. clearly you saw the problem with it and refused to answer it. my point was that since you are not God, and you're not the one who wrote the NT, then you HAVE to interpret it. you can no more NOT interpret the NT, than you can NOT interpret the poems of a poet, or even the words that i'm saying here. you haven't answered most of my objections, and it's clear that you can't. you're grasping for straws and you need to open your eyes and see the Truth. |
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