The phrase "baptized in the Spirit" is only used twice from Acts through Revelation; in all other references the terms used are "gift(s)" or "filled". Therefore you are totally incorrect in your assumptions of what I believe or teach concerning being "baptized in the Spirit".
Now common sense tells anyone taking Acts 2 at face value that Peter quoted Joel to explain why the disciples were speaking in tongues. Even Scofield (who is a dispensationalist) sees Joel 2:17-21 being fulfilled in Acts 2. You can verify this by referring to a Scofield Reference Bible. And so does Paul since he quotes from Joel 2:32 in Romans 10:13.
Let me ask you this: If Acts 2 simply refers to the giving of the Spirit, then should not all people speak in tongues when they are saved? After this, should not all saved people see visions, dreams, and/or prophesy during their lifetime?
It appears that you assume anyone who refuses to accept your theology leans toward the cultish beliefs of the UPC. The fact is the Holy Spirit gives gifts to men as He sees fit, and that includes tongues and prophecy.
1 Corinthians 12:4-11
4 Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit. 5 And there are varieties of ministries, and the same Lord. 6 And there are varieties of effects, but the same God who works all things in all persons. 7 But to each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit for the common good. 8 For to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, and to another the word of knowledge according to the same Spirit; 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, and to another gifts of healing by the one Spirit, 10 and to another the effecting of miracles, and to another prophecy, and to another the distinguishing of spirits, to another various kinds of tongues, and to another the interpretation of tongues. 11 But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually just as He wills. NAS
The only way you can establish your theology is to totally ignore the balance of Scripture:
Ephesians 4:8
8 Therefore it says,
"When He ascended on high,
He led captive a host of captives,
And He gave gifts to men."
NAS
And Peter also understood that Joel 2:28-32 refers to the national salvation of Israel at the end of the Tribulation, which means that he saw the events of Acts 2:1-13 as a partial fulfillment of Joel 2:28-32.
Now you are changing your position. Is Joel 2:28-32 applicable to the tribulation period or is Joel 2:28-32 partially fulfilled in Acts 2 and throughout the church age since the Holy Spirit was given to men and the Holy Spirit distributes gifts as He wills?