Aineo wrote:I just has a thought I think both Googles and Apple Pie have to address and that is does your semantics work in Greek? We can all agree the New Testament was written in Greek, not Hebrew. And I think we can also agree that the most widely used OT in the first century was the Septuagint, which is also written in Greek. And before either of you appeal to Jesus and His apostles spoke Aramaic I quote Googles"
Googles wrote:Aineo wrote:]"Yachid" can also mean "unique" since Isaac was not Abraham's "yachid" son. However in John 17:3 Jesus refers to the Father as the only true God. Now since Jesus spoke Aramaic a form of Hebrew if we use your semantics then Jesus affirms that the Father is the "yachid" true God in John 17:3.
Since we do not have the Aramaic available, we cannot put any words in Jesus’ mouth, i.e., whether or not He used “echad” or “yachid”. Besides that, if the text in John 17:3 contradicts Dt 6:4, you cannot go back and change Dt 6:4. It stands as ‘echad’ and not ‘yachid’ in Dt 6:4. Case closed.
Now since Paul was the apostle to the gentiles and gentiles did not understand the nuances of trinitrain theology unless you can show that theos is plural, that heis is equivalent to echad, and that mono is equivalent to yached then you have to show the Trinity in the NT in plain language don't you? So tell me how a first century Greek would understand, "Hear O Israel the Lord our God is one Lord".
Does the concept of the OT Trinity carry-over into the NT…?
Of course.
The Book of Revelation tells us point blank that Theos is Triune in the opening greeting of chapter one.
Further, Revelation repeatedly demonstrates the complete deity interchangeability between God & Jesus.
Further still, even the classic Arabic of the Koran (which was copy/translated from the Holy Bible) confirms the concept of the Biblical Trinity.
As you can verify for yourself; the concept of the Biblical Trinity covers at least these three separate languages…
Thanks…