Hi OMYA
I think that you must have not read my second posting and the actual Greek word used in the original text. Please re read it and then read the rest of this
When the KJV was translated, some words were translated as we would know them in English. So they translated the word which does mean fear, just as that. In the Greek language, like many other languages, there are a number of meanings to every word and depending on the word you use, depends on how you should read it.
Greek for example has four words for our english word LOVE and depending on which of those four words are used, so the translation should be read in that way. In the Bible, you only read LOVE, but to understand the verse properly in the way the original author meant it to be read, you have to really know which of those four words were used in the original and the entire meaning of the verse can change, depending on which word is used.
Bible Translators spend hours trying to discover the original meaning of a word, and sometimes when they are unable to do a direct translation, they will write the meaning in full. So for example, in the English Bible, the shortest verse is a two word verse in John 17. "Jesus wept" In the Bible of the indigenous people I live with, that same verse has about 20 words in it.
As I said in a previous posting.. there are a number of words in Greek which mean fear, but in English translation, they are only translated in our one english word fear!
When we read fear, we immediately think of terror, or being afraid, whereas the word used in Hebrews 5:7, translated in the KJV is actually fear meaning to be in revereant awe of something or someone.
When you see a most magnficent sunset and it causes you to catch your breath and be in awe of it.. you are "fearing" it, in the sense the word is used in Hebrews 5:7. Isaiah experienced this in Isaiah 6:1-7, Ezekiel saw it in Ezekiel 1 and 2. In all cases, it causes the person seeing the glory of God to bow down, worship and be obedient to the call of God. Jesus saw it as explained in Hebrews 5:7.. and the correctly translated form of the Greek word, which many more modern translations use, is here given as "reverent submission" In reverent submission, he did all that was required of Him.
Now this leads us onto the next part of your question.. and that of Jesus coming and not destroying the Law, but fulfilling it. Jesus was very quick to make sure all the law was fulfilled and not one part of it was in any way bought to question by Jesus.
The Pharisees, the scribes, those in authority, tried every way possible to trick him into disobeying the Law. The Gospels are full of examples of how they used the Law to try and make him slip up. In every situation, he showed them that they had turned the law into a list of do's and don'ts and missed the meaning of it... to turn people to God and to relationship with Him.
This is the change that michael is talking about in his posts.. If God's word never changes.. and it can't because God never changes, it stands to reason, that what He said in the Old Testament MUST also be in someway true in the New Testament and therefore MUST be true for us today. Jesus's words and His life didn't destroy the Law, it fulfilled it and showed how it should be understood in the life of someone in relationship with God.
The change required here, were not my words, but the bibles Hebrews 7:11-19, and the change was not the need for a High Priest.. but the line of the high priest. Until Jesus' time, the highpriest was from the priestly levitical line (from the clan of Levi). The prophecies said that THE coming Messiah would be like (in the order of) Melchizadek. and verse 16 explains the reason...
"one who has become a priest not on the basis of a regulation as to his ancestory, but on the basis of an indestructible life."
Hebrews 7:2 explains why... this Mechizedek was king of Salem and High Priest of God... "first his name means "king of righteousness, then also "king of salem" means king of peace" Without mother or father, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, like the Son of God, he remains a priest forever."
Jesus didn't destroy the prophecies, he fulfilled them and brought into being what the Bible describes as
"the law made nothing perfect, and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God" Hebrews 7:19
PLEASE read Hebrews chapter 7. so many of your questions are answered there.
Now.. finally, if Jesus came to fulfil the Law, as I said in my previous posting, He had to fulfil every part of it. He was and is the Great High Priest who can and does enable the sacrifice to be acceptable to bring about the change necessary inside that will enable us to be acceptable to God. What the Jews for years strived for in their sacrificial system.. was fulfilled in Jesus.
He wasn't JUST the High Priest.. he was and is also the sacrifice itself.
I haven't got time at the moment to answer the last part of your question, but Jesus as the Son of Man, could also be the "Lamb of God, who takes away the sins of the world" John 1:29.
To really understand what the cross and Jesus' death meant you have to understand what the sacrifice demanded and how Jesus fulfilled that demand. Remember, he came into a Jewish culture and religion and to understand it, we must read it from that perspective.
Even the way he died, and the spearing that followed his death, was in accordance to Jewish Law as well as Roman Law and many of your other questions will be hopefully answered in my next post.
Carol