Firstly Alhpa, you've assumed that I am Muslim, and based on that assumption, you are starting to offend me, without any reason other than being biased, excuse me but that's true......all I'm asking for is some logical expanations to certain things...but till now I haven't got any....before starting to offend....answer me and convince me...
And I'm not ashamed or afraid to say that I'm muslim....there's nothing to fear or be ashamed of..
I tried to change the original subject, and started from scratch hoping to get some reasonable answers, but i didn't get any, unfortunately.
Most scholars accept that Mark's Gospel was written first and that Matthew and Luke both used Mark's Gospel when they composed their own. In fact 95% of Mark is found in either Matthew and or Mark's Gospel
That was what Carol wrote......isn't it interesting to say that Matthew and Luke Used Mark's gospel to compose their own, shouldn't they write what God has inspired them?
And if it is admitted that the ending of the gospel wasn't in the original scriptures, shouldn't we start to question the whole authenticity of the book?