Archivedwhat is the problem??????Alpha Wrote It was not until the Protestant Revolution which started officially in 1517 that there arose a huge controversy about how many books the Bible contains. Is it 73, as Catholics claim, or 66, as Protestants hold? In other words, do the books of Tobit, Judith, 1 + 2 Maccabees, Wisdom, Sirach, and Baruch indeed belong to the Bible, or are they not divinely inspired and should not be contained therefore in the Sacred Scriptures? as the Protestants claim. These disputed books are referred to as the "deutero-canonical books" by Catholics, and as the "apocryphal books" by Protestants. the deuterocanon contains many Christian prophecies and allusions to the New Testament, something the Jews could not stand at all! A perfect example would be Wisdom 2:10-24, which is among the clearest prophecy about Jesus' passion in the entire Scriptures. The Jews, however, were anti-Christian and would not admit that Jesus is the Messiah! Indeed, the first Christians did use the deuterocanonical books. Proof of this can be found in art versions of the Scriptures (Vulgate, Syriac, and Coptic) as well as by looking at early Church liturgy. This is my favorite, because it makes so little sense. Let us presume that the charge is true, that the Council of Trent added the 7 disputed books in 1546. How, then, could Martin Luther reject those 7 books as early as 1519? It was in that year that Luther had a debate with J. Maier Eck about purgatory. When confronted with 2 Maccabees 12:46 as a proof passage, Luther responded by saying that this book was not Scripture. This was fairly difficult for him to say if the book did not get added until 1546! What really happened was that ever since the Councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage in the late 4th century AD, the Christian faithful were taught that the deuterocanonical books are Scripture, and they were used as such. It was not, however, until 1546 that these books were solemnly and dogmatically defined as belonging to the canon, because it was not until then (i.e., the Protestant Revolution) that the inspiration of those books was called into question. And usually no doctrine is defined until called into question. Why, though, did Martin Luther deny the inspiration of the deuterocanon? Presumably because (some of) the 7 disputed books contain lots of scriptural proof for peculiarly Catholic doctrine, especially purgatory and almsgiving/penance. This Luther did not like. So he decided it be better to side with the Jews concerning the canon and deny the 7 books as part of the Bible. Peace |
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