RomeSweetHome,
The New Testament refers in some way to almost every Old Testament book. But why do they never refer to the Apocraphal books? Also, you said, "Indeed, the first Christians did use the deuterocanonical books. Proof of this can be found in art versions of the Scriptures (Vulgate, Syriac, and Coptic) as well as by looking at early Church liturgy." But looking at old copies of the Apocrypha, does not mean it was correct to include the Hebrew and Apocrypha books together. This does not test divine inspiration. Also you say that Christ spoke from the apocraphal books. Can you please show me where He does?