Christian/Muslim ThreadsNo Proof Quran Copied from Bible, Gnostic or Jewish SourcesGood afternoon Who is talking about SCRIPT. I was referring to the language and style of Arabic as spoken or written by the Quraish Arabs vs that of the Egyptian Arabic. 2) Pls see below: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_language 3) The third question is irrelevant to the topic in discussion. 4) Liberate wrote: Precisely my question. The problem with Tisdall is that he did not specify/conclude/confirm that the Arabic Gospel of Infancy was available to the Prophet at Mecca. 5) Again, pls read what I wrote earlier. Tisdall BELIEVED that the apocryphal was the SOURCE. However, he did not have any proof or evidence that it was available to the Prophet. I would have expected Tisdall to provide critical examination of the text and conclude that it was indeed the textual source. He did not do that. He jumped to the idea of oral borrowing instead. 6) Please do not be so naive as to believe that the Objective of his book is the same as the the Proof of plagiarism. 7) We all know that the Arabic Gospel of Infancy was derived from earlier apocryphas. That is not new. I invite the readers to read again what Tisdall conclude: i) If Tisdall believe Muhammad copied from the apocryphal, it would be strange if he conclude Muhammad (pbuh) "was not consulting any written document". ii) Tisdall believed it was thr oral transmission (he cited Mary the Copt) and he believed the Prophet 'reproduced the story from memory'. Of course, I have expaliend Mary the Copt could not have been the 'teacher'. I thought the above was pretty clear. Strange, a person like Liberate, could twist and turn to say it otherwise. The conclusion is not far from what the Encyl. Britannica mentioed: We can always discuss the person who 'influence' him then. 8) The way you phrase your question is rather incriminating. You could have asked, something like this: "What evidence would you require me to provide you to convince you of the case of plagiarism". I have asked Loki before - textual criticism of the text which you claimed he copied from, historical statements from enemies or foe which directed to that accusation, carbon-dating (Loki must be smiling), etc. 9) The reason Tisdall raised the topic of the Arabic Gospel of Infancy was bec of the 'Arabic' (whatever style or langauage or dialect it was supposed to be in). Once again, we know the Arabic Gospel was derived from earlier apocryphals. What is of concern is whether Muhammad (pbuh) got access to teh book, if the accusation was of textual borrowing. 10) Since when did I say that the "egyptian arabic was the offficial written language during that era"? 11) The 'tales of the ancients' was in refernce to the stories that the people know about the earlier prophets that gave the same warnings. The context of the surahs I mentioned has no refrence at all to the childhood of Jesus. In many cases in teh Quran, when it talks about Jews and Christians and the refernce to Jesus, the Quran would mention "People of the Book". 12) It is not important if I know about Sirat Rasullulah. You quoted that text and I asked for reference. You failed to provide me. And you say I "defies logic"? 13) There is NO Proof the Prophet copied from the apocryphals. salam |
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