I have no appealed to anything but the text of the Bible, which can reasonably be read to question your position, I have given logical reasons for understanding Jesus the Christ to be the Word in John 1, and you have refused to rebut those with anything resembling a reasoned arguement.
You continue to say I am begging the question, without substantiating such a claim. Which you cannot, because I am not using circular logic.
My last post was in actuality an attempt to garner a reasoned rebuttal, so I would have something to debate, your personal interpretation of John 17:3 is not a reasoned rebuttal, it is an a priori assumption of your correctness, and the wording of the verse does not rule out my beliefs.
Since you obviously beleive that the cultural, theological, and philosophical background of the Apostles is at odds with my understanding of John 1:1 please elucidate. How does the Apostle John's theological and philosophical outlook refute my understanding of his words? I will accept any writing that can be reasonably attributed to him or a close companion explaining his philosophical/theological outlook that plainly speaks against my views, ideally these would be after and not before Christ's death and ressurection...