Interesting how you avoid the obvious and try to deny the obvious by appealing to another Scripture that has to be interpreted to mean Jesus is God.
What do the phrases "only true God" and "but one God, the Father" mean to you? And BTW, I have not denied the truth of Colossians 1:15, Hebrews 1:2, or John 1:3 what I have done is question the Trinitarian interpretation of these Scriptures.
What did John mean with when he used the term "logos"? How did 1st century Jews and Greeks understand "logos", which corresponds with the Hebrew "dabar"?
For me to accept your explanation of Paul's intent in 1 Corinthians 8:6 I have to throw out basic English and Hebrew grammar. Your explanation does not make sense.