Salvation according to the Bible:
The Church will tell us that it is necessary for Jesus to be the son of God and to die on the cross as an ultimate sacrifice in atonement for the original sin, otherwise they are all destined for hell. As Paul taught them "without shedding of blood is no remission." Hebrews 9:22.
If the sin of one man can make all mankind sinners as claimed in Romans 5:12, then:
1) This requires that all babies are sinners from birth and are only saved if they later "accept the sacrifice of their Lord and are baptized." All others remain stained with the original sin and destined for destruction. Till recently, unbaptized infants were not buried in consecrated ground because they were believed to have died in original sin. Saint Augustine himself is quoted as saying:
"No one is clean, not even if his life be only for a day" A dictionary of Biblical tradition in English literature, p.577).
This, however, contradicts the words of Jesus himself
"But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven." Matthew 19:14 (also Mark 10:14, and Luke 18:16).
So Jesus himself is telling us that children are born without sin and are destined for heaven without qualification. In other words, no one is born stained with an original sin.
2) All the many millennia of previous prophets (Moses, Abraham, Jacob, Noah, ...etc.) and their people are all condemned to never receive true salvation simply because Jesus, the alleged "Son of God," arrived to late to save them. In other words, they have sin forced upon them (by Adam, 1 Corinthians 15:22) and the chance for redemption withheld from them (By Jesus' late arrival after their death, Galatians 2:16). Paul says
"Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come." Romans 5:14
"For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath reason to boast; but not before God." Romans 4:2
If Jesus had only arrived as soon as Adam committed his sin and not thousands of generations later then maybe all of these generations could have received true salvation (like this generation).
Did Abraham or any of the other prophets ever preach the "crucifixion"? Did they preach the "Trinity"? I am asking for clear and decisive words and not personal forced interpretations of their words or "hidden meanings" for their words. If you are not sure then why not ask the Jews who we are told faultlessly transmitted two thirds of the Bible to us? Have any of them ever worshipped a Trinity? Many people do not bother to think about this. As long as they are going to heaven, what does it matter what happens to others?
3) What right did the prophets of God have to deceive their people and tell them that they would receive eternal salvation and expiation from their sins if they but kept the commandments? What right did they have to teach them all of these commandments and the observance of the Sabbath and other hardships if all of their works were worthless and belief in Jesus' sacrifice which would not occur till many thousands of years after their death was the only way to salvation, or as Paul put it :
"a man is not justified by the works of the law ... for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.." Galatians 2:16.
4) Explain Ezekiel 18:19-20 "Yet do you say: Why shouldn't the son bear the iniquity of the father? When the son hath done that which is lawful and right, and hath kept all my statutes, and hath done them, he shall surely live. The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.."
This verse was revealed long before the birth of Paul and his claims of "original sin" and "redemption." It clearly states that all mankind are not held accountable by God Almighty for the sin of Adam.
"The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.." Deuteronomy 24:16
"In those days they shall say no more, The fathers have eaten a sour grape, and the children's teeth are set on edge. But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge." Jeremiah 31:29-30
"The word of the LORD came unto me again, saying, What mean ye, that ye use this proverb concerning the land of Israel, saying, The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge? As I live, saith the Lord GOD, ye shall not have occasion any more to use this proverb in Israel. Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die. But if a man be just, and do that which is lawful and right, And hath not eaten upon the mountains, neither hath lifted up his eyes to the idols of the house of Israel, neither hath defiled his neighbor's wife, neither hath come near to a menstruous woman, And hath not oppressed any, but hath restored to the debtor his pledge, hath spoiled none by violence, hath given his bread to the hungry, and hath covered the naked with a garment; He that hath not given forth upon usury, neither hath taken any increase, that hath withdrawn his hand from iniquity, hath executed true judgment between man and man, Hath walked in my statutes, and hath kept my judgments, to deal truly; he is just, he shall surely live, saith the Lord God" Ezekiel 18:1-9
"Who is a God like unto thee, that pardoneth iniquity, and passeth by the transgression of the remnant of his heritage? he retaineth not his anger for ever, because he delighteth in mercy." Micah 7:18:
"So ye shall not pollute the land wherein ye [are]: for blood it defileth the land: and the land cannot be cleansed of the blood that is shed therein, but by the blood of him that shed it." Numbers 35:33
5) "Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him." John 14:23.
"If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love." John 15:10.
So what were Jesus' words to us?:
"And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments. He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness. Honor thy father and [thy] mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet? Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go [and] sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come [and] follow me." Matthew 19:16-21.
Jesus refutes that he is even "good." This is a characteristic of a MAN. When you compliment a man, and this man is humble, he will say: "why are you complimenting me? I am not so good, I am just a humble man." This is how good and decent men speak. It is how they display humility before God. However, if Jesus is God then he must claim to be good. This is because God is the source of ultimate good. If God claims not to be good then he will be a hypocrite and a liar which is impossible.
Jesus then goes on to completely bypass any mention of an original sin or an atonement. He does not tell this man that "a man is not justified by the works of the law ... for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.." Rather, he tells him that the keeping of the commandments and the selling of one's belongings is the path to perfection. No mention of an original sin. No mention of an atonement. No mention of a crucifixion. No mention of faith without work. All of these beliefs were the beliefs of Paul and not Jesus.
Paul, a disciple of Jesus' disciple Barnabas, is quoted to have said that the law of Moses is worthless. Belief in the crucifixion is the only requirement
"Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified" Galatians 2:16
Also:
"Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law." Romans 3:28
And:
"In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away" Hebrews 8:13.
And:
"He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." Mark 16:16
Please compare the above with
"The law of the LORD [is] perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD [is] sure, making wise the simple." Psalm 19:7
Jesus , however, tells us that
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." Matthew 5:18-19.
Confirmed in Luke:
"And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail." Luke 16:17
Even James emphasizes that:
"What [doth it] profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him? If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be [ye] warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what [doth it] profit? Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works. Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble. But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only. Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent [them] out another way? For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also." James 2:14-20
It comes down to this: Who's words carry more weight with us, Jesus or Paul? Jesus and James both say "have faith in God and obey the commandments and you shall be saved." Paul on the other hand says "Forget the commandments, just have faith in the death of Jesus!" So who do we trust, Jesus or Paul?
Jesus himself never said "Believe in my sacrifice on the cross and you will be saved." He didn't tell this young man "You are filthy wicked and sinful and can never enter heaven except through my redeeming blood and your belief in my sacrifice." He simply said repeatedly "keep the commandments" and nothing more. If Jesus was being prepared and conditioned for this sacrifice from the beginning of time, then why did he not mention it to this man? Even when this man pressed him for more, Jesus only told him that to be "PERFECT" he only needs to sell his belongings. He made no mention whatsoever of his crucifixion, an original sin, or a redemption. Would this not be quite sadistic of Jesus if Paul's claims are true "for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified"? We do not know when or how this young man later died. However, supposing he died the very next day, right after receiving this command directly from the mouth of Jesus, would he then be destined for Hell since he never believed in a Trinity, an original sin, a crucifixion or an atonement even though he was following the command of Jesus to the letter?
If Jesus' whole mission in life was to die on the cross in atonement for the "sin of Adam," and if this was the founding reason why he was sent, would we not be justified in expecting him to spend night and day drumming this into the minds of his followers? Should we not expect him to speak of nothing else? Should we not expect him to spend night and day preaching that the commandments shall soon be thrown out the window (Galatians 3:13) and faith in his upcoming crucifixion shall be the only thing required of them? (Romans 3:2. Should we not expect Jesus to echo the teachings of Paul who never in his life met Jesus but claims Jesus was preaching these things to him in "visions"? Should we not expect Jesus to tell everyone he meets "The commandments are worthless. I shall be dying on the cross soon. Believe in my sacrifice and you shall be saved"? Is this not dictated by plain simple logic? Can we find such an explicit statement from Jesus anywhere in the whole Bible?
7) We read in the Bible that Jesus taught his followers to pray to God as follows:
"..And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors." Matthew 6:12.
Also:
"And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us." Luke 11:4.
Jesus is asking us to pray to God that He forgive our sins. But how does he want God to forgive our sins? By a blood sacrifices of a sinless god? No!. That is not what he said. Rather, he taught us to ask God to forgive us "as we forgive those who are indebted to us." Therefore one must ask, if someone owes us money and we want to forgive them, what do we do?:
1) Do we say "I forgive you your debt ... now pay up!"?
2) Do we say "I forgive you your debt ... now I shall kill your neighbor"
3) Or do we say "I forgive you," and forget the matter?
Therefore, did Jesus teach us to pray to God that He should:
1) Say "All of mankind is forgiven ... now pay an ultimate price"?
2) Or, to say "All of mankind is forgiven ... now I need to kill someone who is sinless"?
3) Or, to say "All of mankind is forgiven" and that is it !?
Tom Harpur, a former professor of New Testament, author of "For Christ's Sake," and an Anglican Minister writes;
"Perhaps I am lacking in piety or some basic instinct, but I know I am not alone in finding the idea of Jesus' death as atonement for the sins of all humanity on one level bewildering and on the other morally repugnant. Jesus never to my knowledge said anything to indicate that forgiveness from God could only be granted 'after' or 'because of' the cross." (For Christ's Sake, p.75)
If God Almighty decided to sacrifice His only son for the redemption of mankind, then we have one of two cases:
1) Jesus did not know of this plan and the fate God had decreed for him.
2) Jesus knew of this plan and the fate God had decreed for him.
In the first case, if Jesus did not know of God's plan, then this insinuates that God either tricked Jesus into this fate, or God forced Jesus into this fate. In other words, Jesus' mercy and sacrifice require God Himself to be savage, blood-thirsty, and ruthless. This, of course, is preposterous.
In the second case, if Jesus did know of this plan, then we are faced with three problems:
a) If Jesus' sole mission to mankind was to die on the cross, free them from the original sin, free them from the law of Moses, and provide salvation for them, then why did he never in his lifetime mention it to his followers? Why did he not spend night and day drumming these new concepts into their minds? Why did he himself observe the commandments of Moses so completely and so faithfully even up till his alleged death? In Matthew 19:16-21 when Jesus was asked for the path to heaven, why did he emphasize the keeping of the commandments of Moses but never mention the crucifixion nor the redemption or having "faith" in them? Why, when he was pressed for more, did he still not mention either a crucifixion nor a redemption but only claim that anyone who kept the commandments of Moses and sold his belongings would be "perfect"? Why did he not say "have faith in my crucifixion and forsake the commandments and you shall be 'perfect'"?
b) If Jesus' sole mission to mankind was to die on the cross, free them from the original sin, free them from the law of Moses, and provide salvation for them, then why, when he was in the garden of Gethsemane did he plead with God Almighty and implore Him "Eli, Eli Lama sabachthani", meaning "my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46)? Why are the words of Matthew 27:46 the only words of all of the New Testament reported in their original Aramaic form? Could it be that Jesus' alleged helpless cry left such a vivid impression of a man seemingly bereft of hope that anyone who heard them would remember the exact words? Why did he allegedly beseech God to "let this cup pass" (Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, Luke 22:42)? Did he get cold feet? Was he trying to back out of a fate he had previously accepted? Was the redemption of mankind not so important any more?
c) If Jesus' sole mission to mankind was to die on the cross, free all of Mankind from the original sin, free them from the law of Moses , and provide salvation for them, then why when he spoke to the Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:22-8 did he refuse to heal her daughter on the grounds that he was sent to the Jews alone "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel,"? According to Jesus' words in these verses, his mission was for the Jews alone, therefore it was not fitting for him to even heal a non-Jewess woman since in his own words "It is not meet to take the children's bread and to cast it to dogs." Was Jesus to die on the cross for the Jews alone? If Jesus did not see fit to even heal non-Jews then how could we claim that he knew and accepted from the beginning of time that he was going to endure torture, humiliation, and finally a very gruesome death in order to provide eternal salvation for all of mankind? Did God and Jesus not know when he was first sent what his ultimate mission would be? Did his mission change later on? Did they not decide that it was necessary for Jesus to die for the "original sin" until the end of Jesus' mission?
Once again, we find both alternatives preposterous. Mankind does not inherit sin, nor does God hold them responsible for the same. God only judges mankind according to their own individual actions and forgives much of their transgressions. Jesus was human messenger of God sent to the Jews alone in order to return them to the message of Moses and discard the innovations that had crept into their book over the ages.
Then where is the justice in punishing us for Adam's sin? The Bible itself says that children will not be punished for the parents' sins (Deuteronomy 24:16). Furthermore, if God really created Adam not knowing either good or evil (Genesis 3:22), how could such a harsh and enduring punishment as death for Adam and all his descendants possibly be just? Our secular courts are more just than God when they show mercy on people who cannot distinguish between right and wrong, such as children and the mentally handicapped. And why isn't this doctrine of original sin found anywhere in the Bible except in Paul's writings?
And why don't Christians believe in Krishna, Mithra, Attis, Dionysus, Iao etc.... These gods did the same sacrifice as Jesus. They were crucified for the salvation of Human kind then they resurrected after a while!!!
So why don't Christians believe in those gods also???
Alexei