Dear Matthew24;
There is no word neither in Hebrew text that comes to equal Homosexual or Homosexuality the closest word to it would be "toeyvah" and even then the word by itself means nothing and in sentence structure it means a natural Eunuch or in Greek "malakos or aresenokoites which has a very broad use in the bible and is loosely translated to equal that of soft things or effeminate things although admittedly English has brought about the translation to mean that of anal or oral copulation with a member of the opposite sex or same sex or copulation with an animal. So it can be conveyed to Heterosexuals as well when performing oral sex. And when we do this we get a big Ah come on from the straight guys, well that just isn’t fair. But look it up!
The above should show why there is some difficulty in translating Hebrew and Greek into English especially that of 1Cor 6:9 into English. First off, we do not have specific words in Hebrew to convey homosexual intercourse as the Greek language does thus inadequetly conveying homosexual behavior in the Old Testemant. Secondly, there are not even two English words for homosexual sex that would be appropriate in this context to derive from Hebrew. Third, it is difficult to indicate simply in English that Paul is referring to behavior, not just orientation.
Sadly, the reality of our historical time period is that the texts of Leviticus (and Deuteronomy) which were utilized by the teachers and rabbis of the Jewish religious tradition to condemn homosexuality were utilized under a direct and constant danger and THREAT from the dominant and controlling Christian governmental and ecclesiastical authorities.
This period of the condemnation of homosexuals, witches, healers, and heretics took place mostly in the 4th to 6th centuries of the Common Era (CE), which was about 1500 years after the original text was codified in the Hebrew Torah.
The reason that this late date coercion took place was that the theologians and ecclesiastical authorities of the Christian Church, as the suppression of the House of Israel from the Jews to the Christians, needed to have the "perceived" Jewish interpretation of the texts, as taught by the Jewish rabbinical authorities, to be in accordance with their own commentaries and teachings on homosexuality and what they believed (falsely) to be sexual perversion. Thus, they kept a close watch on what the Jewish rabbis wrote about subjects sensitive to Church dogma.
Moreover, the Greek words are rather general. They are not restricted to male prostitution or male to male sex as some try to claim about this passage. These concepts are included in the words but the words are not restricted to them. When considering that these two words are only used in this verse to refer to such behavior and all other times refer to soft things or effiminate things then you must look even closer and what is being translated and at how to use these words as the author entended
Thus unless you have decoded a new word in Hebrew you are
miss guided in quoting scripture. Don’t believe me look it up!