RomeSweetHome wrote:
"knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son" (Mt 1:25). You are probably referring to the word "till" in that passage, but the Greek word does not indicate a change after Jesus' birth. It simply states that Joseph had no relations with Mary before or during her pregnancy.
All Matthew intended to establish is the fact that St. Joseph could not possibly Jesus' father; he was not immediately concerned with discussing Mary's continued virginity after Jesus' birth.
That is the piont isn't it, The bible does not say that Mary and Joseph did not have sex, it says that he did not
know her until after Jesus's birth. The word
knew indicates carnal knowledge.