the mother of Jesus.
Was she sinless? If so, why does she refer to her Son as her Savior? (Luke 1:47)
If so, why would Paul have said that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God? (Romans 3:23) He did not say "all except Mary" -- for if she had truly been sinless, Paul would no way have kept silent about it!
If so, why would Jesus have said "For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother." (Matthew 12:50) He made NO distinction between His mother Mary and any other woman who was a follower of His.
Was Mary celibate the rest of her life?
Not if she was a good and godly wife to Joseph. "The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband." (1 Cor. 7:3-4)
What gain is there in Mary not having other children, especially when the bible identifies them? Was she not a godly wife? Did she refuse to fulfill her marital duty to her husband. Did her body NOT belong to him, too?
Did Mary ascend bodly to heaven? If so, why don't we read about it in the Bible? We read about Enoch, who was translated, and Elijah and the chariot of fire -- and was not Mary more important than they? Why then do we read so very little about her.....
Unless, of course, she was simply a vessel chosen by God, an obedient believer blessed for a special role, but nonetheless a sinner in need of salvation and an otherwise normal wife and mother?
What has the Catholic church gained by raising her to mythical heights? Why did they do it? It is not biblical.
It is, however, awfully close to traditional paganism....