Someone posted '101 Questions for the Christian' on several boards here and it was locked. But I took a look at the questions and after taking time for the first three, saw what was going on and so thought I would share what I responded with on my Word file and what my thoughts were at the end of the first three:
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1. If Jesus’ mission was to the lost sheep of Israel, why was it confined to Palestine where only two of the original tribes had settled? Did that mean that Jesus had failed in his mission?
From a human point of view, it might be said that Jesus saturated a relatively small area, knowing it would spread from there. The area He saturated was the area given by God to the Israelites many years before, and also where the Temple was. However the concept that Jesus’ mission was only to the Israelites is false. Time and time again in both the Old and New Testaments the mention is made of a Savior for the world, not just one particular group. Jesus ministered to all who came to Him seeking help, not just the Jews. He continues doing this today.
2. Why should Jesus specifically forbid, on the one hand, preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles (Matthew 7:6, 15:24, 26) and yet on the other, tell the disciples to teach allt he nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost (Matthew 28:19)?
Matthew 7:6 states (NIV) “Do not give dogs what is sacred; do not throw your pearls to pigs. If you do, they may trample them under their feet and then turn and tear you to pieces.” Both Jews and Greeks used the term ‘dog’ for someone considered either non-Jew or a prostitute/shameless woman, respectively. Both Jews and Greeks considered dogs unclean animals. So there is no reason, either in the use of the word ‘dog’ or the context of the verse to assume that Jesus was referring to not preaching to the Gentiles.
Pig, on the other hand, was not an epithet. It was an unclean animal. Therefore this verse is much more against the giving of one’s treasures (and this does not necessarily mean sharing the Gospel, although that is a treasure for us) to those who are shameless or those who would trample and destroy what was given to them. Because we cannot know one another’s hearts, this is therefore not at all a prohibition against talking about the Gospel to anyone! But it certainly could be considered a prohibition against continued giving of one’s time and knowledge and even physical means to anyone who subsequently showed he or she was shameless and ‘unclean’, or a God-hater.
In referencing Matthew 15;24,26, the author of these questions is showing a great deal of ignorance. First of all, the Canaanite woman persisted in asking for help to the extent that the disciples started begging Jesus to send her away. Jesus uses this opportunity to show exactly the opposite of what the author of these questions seems to be seeing. Here Jesus does use the common thoughts of the day, and then shows how wrong they are. “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel” is NOT directed to the woman, but to the disciples. It is, in the proverbial sense, a throwing down of the glove. He is about to defeat some of their misconceptions, for he was NOT sent only to Israel, but to the world THROUGH Israel. Since He has not yet addressed the woman, she continues her pleas – “Lord, help me!”
This time Jesus responds directly to her, and refers to her by the common Jewish epithet of ‘dog.’ The Holy Spirit is obviously in control of the situation, for the woman is someone who does not take offense but has a ready intelligence, and so responds that “even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their master’s table.”
Jesus no longer holds her in suspense, but congratulates her on her faith! This is a Canaanite woman, hated of the Jews. And Jesus ministers to her, congratulating her on her faith. So this does not say at all what the author of the questions wants it to be saying.
And thus the Great Commission at the end of Matthew is perfectly in accord with Jesus’ ministry.
3. Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6, 15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark 16:15)
If Jesus really had made the latter statement, why was there such a fierce debate within the early Church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as to whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles? (Acts 15:6-30)
Jesus went first to the Temple and synagogues, then to the Jews themselves, and finally to the Gentiles. There is no mystery about this. Paul explains it quite well in Romans. Regarding the ‘argument’ in Acts 15, it was NOT about preaching to the Gentiles, but about whether or not Gentile believers should follow Jewish law. With this question, however, it has become already very clear that the author of these questions is quite ignorant of the Bible itself. Thus, this is just one more of those ignorant lists from people who have not really even read the Bible.
In other words, the list is not worth the time it would take to point out all the places where ignorance of the Bible abounds and where the author of the questions has probably not even read the Bible.