ArchivedMATTHEW 1:23, ISAIAH 7:11, a prophecy fulfilled?James D. Price :"Since the prophecy was not given to Ahaz but to Israel, it can now be understood to have shifted from short range to long range; it ceased to be assurance of short term deliverance, and shifted to long range assurance of Messianic hope. When a prophetic sign is given to a nation, its fulfillment is not bound to the life span of any individual of the nation. In fact, the sign often is long range. Since Ahaz had rejected God's help, the only thing left for his people Israel was the impending defeat and destruction which was the cause of their fear and dread, but with a promise of survival and hope for the distant future." Also, the child whom you refer to did not fulfill the prophecy because he was not called Immanuel. Earlier on you said Christ did not fulfill the sign because He was not called Immanuel. Indeed he was. Just read the gospels. But why do you claim the child in Isaiah is fulfillment of the sign when he was never called Immanuel? Atleast Christ was called Immanuel. Also, Christ being called Immanuel does not only have to be fulfilled in scripture. People all over the Church refer to Christ as Immanuel. There are hyms which refer to Christ as Immanuel. So the prophecy is about Christ because people today (even in my church) refer to Christ as Immanuel. There are two solutions: (1) A dual prophecy in which the word "virgin" means young woman. (2) A prophecy only invoving Christ No matter which you choose, Christ is a fulfillment of the prophecy, and Matthew was right. |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame