ArchivedMohammed: Greatest Prophet, Or False Prophet?Well you can't prove he didn't. ISmael was sent to Paran which is mecca, and out of all Arabia, the only place that ISmael has been to has the Ka'ba.Think. Dude, you prove day after day that you accept no answer. When I say that the moon god was bashed in the Quran why do you repeat like a parrot and say : NO.... he still worshipped the moon god. That's just plain dumb man. Use your brain and read. Such knowledge Rabbi Believer has... he's teaching me my own language now..lol Gen.31:17 Then Jacob rose up, and set ... his wives upon camels 1 Sam.1:1-2 Elkanah ... had two wives; the name of the one was Hannah, and the name of the other Peninnah. 1 Kg.11:2-3 Solomon ... had seven hundred wives ... and three hundred concubines. In Romans 7 v 4 Paul tells the Christians "ye also are become dead to the Law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God." Here the old English of the King James Version shows a vital difference in the Greek original that is lost in many translations. In modern English we use the word "you" both when we are referring to just one other person and when we are referring to two or more other people. Old English, like New Testament Greek, used one word when it was just one person ("thou") and another word when it was two or more people ("ye"). So when Paul says "that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead" he is talking about plural marriage - many believers being married to their one Lord. This is the best example of polygamy that could be hoped for, and it's there in the New Testament. Whilst Paul advises in 1 Corinthians 7 v 2 "let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband", the greek words used for "his own" and "her own" are different, and not just in gender, therefore allowing for the possibility that different rules apply to the different sexes, as polygamists suggest. In fact, the greek word for "her own" in this passage (idios) is used in Romans 14 v 4 to represent a servant and "his own" master. This shows that Paul could have used the same word twice in 1 Corinthians 7, but chose not to. And it also shows that a man belongs to his wife in the same sense as a master belongs to his servant. A servant can have only one master, and a master can have In 1 Timothy 3 v 2 it is made clear that a bishop/elder/overseer, and in v12 a deacon, must be "the husband of one wife" and this is repeated in Titus 1 v 6. This restriction is not placed on any other member of the church, or indeed on anyone at all. The best a monogamist could hope for from this restriction is that while there were polygamists in the church body, these positions were to be restricted to those who had the experience of managing one family and the time to apply their skills to a second family, namely the family of God. However, there is a debate on these issues which allows for the possibility that the scriptures would authorise polygamy even for elders. Polygamy was recognised and regulated by the Law of Moses. Just like normal marriage, polygamy has its fair share of problems, and the law intervenes in Deuteronomy 21 vv 15-17 to make sure that children get what they're entitled to. So rabbi Believer, before you write anything you don't know about, save yourself some time and read your own bible. |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame