Could you prove to us Unity that the passage from the Qur'an implies that Christians over the entire Roman world come together to willingly corrupt the Injeel.
Are you then saying that there are contradictions in the Qur'an:
“Say, O people of the book! You are not founded on anything until you PERFORM the TORAH and the GOSPEL, and what was revealed to you from your Lord” (Sura 5:68-71)
If the Torah and the Gospel is corrupted, how come the Qur'an encourages the Christians and the Jews to perform it?
According to Tafsir Ibn Kathir vol.8 p.542 in reference to the early commentator Sufyan; Sufyan said: 'There is no Verse in the Qur'an more hard to me than this one', then he refers to Sura 5: 68.
Hence Sura 5: 68 has been a problem to Muslims from the earliest times.
But lets continue:
Be courteous when you argue with People of the Book except with those among them who do evil. Say: “ WE BELIEVE in THAT which is revealed to us and WHICH was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one” (Sura 29:46)
Since you are to believe the Torah and the Gospel, how can it be corrupted? Could you expound on that?
O ye who believe! Believe in Allah and his Messenger, and the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO HIS MESSENGER, AND the SCRIPTURE WHICH HE SENT TO THOSE BEFORE (HIM). Any who denieth Allah, His angels, His BOOKS, His messengers, and the day of judgement, hath gone fare astray (Sura 4:136)
You do realise then, that by denying the Torah and Injeel as it existed in Muhammad's era YOU CANNOT BE A MUSLIM.
“The apostles We sent before you were but men whom we inspired with revelations and with Scriptures. Ask the People of the Book if you know not”. (16:43)
If the Bible is corrupted how come the early Muslims had to go for the people of the book for guidance?
“O ye who believe! Be ye helpers of God: as said Jesus the son of Mary to the disciples, ‘Who will be my helpers for God?’ The disciples said, ‘We are God’s helpers!’ Then a portion of the Children of Israel believed, and a portion disbelieved: but we gave power to those who believed against their enemies, and they became the ones that prevailed.” (Al-Saff 61:14)
This verse clearly states that the Christians pervailed. Today we can prove that the Gospels we possess were written in the first century. And the Qur'an testifies that those who wrote them were the ones who prevalied. Hence here the Qur'an confirsm the historical discovery that confirms the reliability of the Gospels.
See also this Sura:
They are whom (Children of Israel) We gave the Scripture, the Judgment and the Prophet hood, but if those (Meccans) disbelieve them, We have entrusted them (Scripture, Judgment and Prophet hood) to a nation (Children of Israel) who do not disbelieve them; they are those whom Allah have guided, so [O Muhammad] follow their Guidance... S. 6:89-90
So in Muhammad's time the Muslims are to seek guidance from the JEws since they are the nation possessing the Scripture and prophethood.
Furthermore how do you explain that the Koran even confirms that the Koran itself was corrupted at Muhammad's time:
"Can you (O men of faith) still earnestly desire that they (the Jews) will believe in you? And verily a party (fariq) among them hear the Word of God, then they pervert it knowingly after they have understood it. And when they meet the believers they say, `We believe,' but when they meet each other in private they say, `Why do you tell them what God has revealed to you (in the Torah), that they may engage you in argument about it before their God? What do you not understand?' Do they not know that God knows what they conceal and what they make public?" [S. 2:75-77, c.f. S. 4:44-47]
Before you just post more stuff could elaborate on the issue I have brought up here.