absolutetruth wrote:God is spirit and God promised to pour out His Spirit on mankind. Now unless you believe a spirit has a spirit how can you believe that the sprit that proceeds from the Father is not the Father Himself?
the same way i understand how the Father sent His Son. you believe in Jesus the Son of God. that phrase entails as well that a spirit (God) has a spirit (Jesus).
Interesting theory but it falls apart when you take these into consideration:
Numbers 16:22-24
22 But they fell on their faces, and said, "O God, Thou God of the spirits of all flesh, when one man sins, wilt Thou be angry with the entire congregation?" 23 Then the LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 24 "Speak to the congregation, saying, 'Get back from around the dwellings of Korah, Dathan and Abiram.'" NAS
Numbers 27:15-17
15 Then Moses spoke to the LORD, saying, 16 "May the LORD, the God of the spirits of all flesh, appoint a man over the congregation, 17 who will go out and come in before them, and who will lead them out and bring them in, that the congregation of the LORD may not be like sheep which have no shepherd. " NAS
Ecclesiastes 12:6-8
6 Remember Him before the silver cord is broken and the golden bowl is crushed, the pitcher by the well is shattered and the wheel at the cistern is crushed; 7 then the dust will return to the earth as it was, and the spirit will return to God who gave it. 8 "Vanity of vanities," says the Preacher, "all is vanity!" NAS
Every spirit of every human being is from God.
a Spirit can no more have a Son (spirit), than He can have a Spirit (spirit).
your charge against me is indistinguishable from the same charge that can be leveled against you.
good answer with the Holy Spirit question i asked you though. thanks.
So what you are telling me is that God is limited because God is spirit?
You see absolutetruth, when people read the Bible with a preconceived purpose they interpret what they read to support what they believe. Greeks starting with the Council of Nicea in 325 A.D defined the Trinity, which was modified by the Council of Constantinople in 381 A.D. and again modified by the Council of Toledo in 675 A.D. (I believe).
Here is part of one of your prior posts:
interesting. Jesus claims to be the Saviour of the world (John 3:16-17), and God says in Isaiah 43:11 "I even I am the Lord, and apart from me there is no Savior."
according to this, in order for Jesus to be our Savior, He HAS to be our God.
will you please answer what i have written in the other posts, and respond to my objections and refutations, instead of just posting a million passages and making me go through them and spend countless time refuting them.
like i said, you have made an absolute negation. the verses that you've given (that YOU feel deny Christ's Divinity) aren't enough. you need to have EVERY VERSE IN THE BIBLE deny His Divinity, otherwise someone lied, or He's Divine. and i've shown just a few verses that support that claim. if you want more, i'll be glad to provide them.
Your assuming since God is our Savior and Jesus is our Savior then Jesus has to be God, which totally ignores these among others:
Acts 5:31-32
31 "He is the one whom God exalted to His right hand as a Prince and a Savior, to grant repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. 32 "And we are witnesses of these things; and so is the Holy Spirit, whom God has given to those who obey Him."
NAS
Acts 13:23-24
23 "From the offspring of this man, according to promise, God has brought to Israel a Savior, Jesus, 24 after John had proclaimed before His coming a baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.
NAS
Jude 24-25
24 Now to Him who is able to keep you from stumbling, and to make you stand in the presence of His glory blameless with great joy, 25 to the only God our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, dominion and authority, before all time and now and forever. Amen. NAS
When the NT quotes the OT we need to read the OT verses in the OT to get the correct understanding of what is being quoted. For instance:
Matthew 22:43-44
43 He said to them, "Then how does David in the Spirit call Him 'Lord,' saying,
44'The Lord said to my Lord,
"Sit at My right hand,
Until I put Thine enemies beneath Thy feet"'?
NAS
Now lets look at the OT, since the Pharisees would have immediately understood what Jesus was quoting:
Psalms 110:1
The LORD says to my Lord:
"Sit at My right hand,
Until I make Thine enemies a footstool for Thy feet."
NAS
LORD is the Hebrew YHWH not ‘adown. So the Pharisees would have understood Jesus as meaning Yehova said to my Lord (‘adown).
Now, by taking only those verses that have been used to establish the Trinity and ignoring all the other verses that show the Trinity is not a valid doctrine is (in my mind) interpreting Scripture to support a belief established by gentiles who did not understand the Hebraic foundations of Christianity.