Hello everyone, I've been working on this formula of the Gethsemane account that I believe proves that Jesus desired evil and I'd like to know what you all think of it:
1. It was God the Father's will that Jesus drink of the cup. (Matt. 26:42)
2. Jesus did not want to drink of the cup. --'O my father, if it is possible, let his cup pass from me. Nevertheless not as I will but as you will.' (Matthew 26:39)
3. Jesus thus did not want to fulfill the Father's will (drink of the Father's cup) and in this way he desired evil. He wanted the Father's will nullified.
4. Jesus rejected his 'evil' desire to not drink of the Father's cup (nullify the Father's will) by concluding that: --'O my father, if this cup can not pass away from me unless I drink it, thy will be done.' (Matthew 26:42)