ArchivedQustions about your bible. ...........I decided to do a little research on why KJ only advocates vehemently insist the KJ properly translates “pascha” as Easter. This site best summarizes why: The problem with this explanation is the Passover is not determined by the Julian or Gregorian calendars, Passover is determined by the phase of the moon since the Hebrew calendar is based on a lunar not a solar calendar. Passover does not always fall in mid-April, which corresponds to the pagan ceremonies dedicated to Ceres/Hera (Ishtar), therefore to assume that Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread always fall on the 14th of April and lasts until April 21st is just that an assumption. Passover like Easter can come as early as late March and as late as early May depending on the phase of the moon after the vernal equinox (March 22). So what we are dealing with is an interpretation of how “pascha” should be translated based on Christian tradition not God’s Law. This reminds me of how Catholicism has bastardized the Lord’s Supper with the Eucharist. The word “Eucharist” is derived from the Greek word “eukharistia”, which means thanksgiving and is how St. Ireaneous and other church fathers referred to the Lord’s Supper. The Catholic Church transliterated the Greek instead of translating the Greek to support importing a pagan celebration into Chritianity since the Eucharist is how it justifies transubstantiation. In 1611 the most popular Bible was the Geneva Bible, which was used by the King James translators. The Geneva Bible has this at Acts 12:3-5: The other Bible the KJ translators used as a reference was the Bishops’ Bible, which has this: Now you can stand on the inerrancy of the KJ version but I choose to stand on the inerrancy and sovereignty of God and the Holy Spirit inspired Luke to write “pascha” not some word that equates to a celebration of a pagan goddess. |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame