Hello Aineo,
I thought I explained thoroughly why the KJV's rendering of "Easter" is correct. Try to understand, It should NOT be translated "passover" because the Passover had already passed. The "days of unleavened bread" had already begun, "THEN were the days of unleavened bread" {Acts 12:3} That "Then" in verse 3 means, at that time, not then later}. It was first passover, THEN were the days of unleavened bread that Peter was arrested. Peter was arrested not on passover. "THEN" which means the Passover was over, and it was THEN the days of unleavened bread. Peter was arrested THEN. check out these verses in the old testament concerning the passover, Num. 28:16-18; Exo. 12:13-18. The Passover was always the fourteenth day of the first month, while the days of unleavened bread ran from the fifteenth through the twenty-first. Herod could not have been waiting for the Passover. Besides, why would a Gentile king like Herod be concerned about a Jewish feast day? "Easter" is from the pagan "Ishtar", the goddess that the pagans worshipped--Rome included. Herod wanted to wait until his pagan holiday was over before bringing Peter out to the people. You misunderstood the word "Then" in verse 3 Aineo
One more thing, I did not say that a person grows into salvation, I said that the NASB implys to that. I don't think you had read the entire post carefully, otherwise you might not have misunderstood me. Oh and something else, how about you giving me proof that all those errors in the KJV that you had posted before, REALLY are errors ok? and from what authority are you getting all this information on all these so called errors? As far as "Easter" being in the KJV, I'm not going to debate with you anymore on that because it is pointless. I believe whole heartedly that God is able to preserve his word in a translation that is without error, and the KJV is it, and to think that God can not have a translation without errors is a slap in the face to him.