Aineo,
The Greek word "Pascha" is in the New Testament 29 times as you know, and there was a reason why the KJV translators translated that word "passover" 28 times in all those verses except the one in Acts 12:4, which they translated the same word "Easter". I asked my Pastor about it again this past Monday, and he explained to me, and he said that those 6 KJV translators knew what they were doing when they translated "pascha" in Acts 12:4 as "Easter" when they translated "pascha" the other 28 times as 'passover"
Here is Acts 12:3-4, read verses carefully, then read the explanation.
"And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."
Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (April 15-21). The Bible says: "Then were the days of unleavened bread." The passover (April 14th) had already come and gone. Herod could not possibly have been referring to the passover in his statement concerning Easter. The next Passover was a year away! But the pagan holiday of Easter was just a few days away. Remember! Herod was a pagan Roman who worshipped the "queen of heaven". He was NOT a Jew. He had no reason to keep the Jewish passover. Some might argue that he wanted to wait until after the passover for fear of upsetting the Jews. There are two grievous faults in this line of thinking.
First, Peter was no longer considered a Jew. He had repudiated Judaism. The Jews would have no reason to be upset by Herod's actions.
Second, he could not have been waiting until after the passover because he thought the Jews would not kill a man during a religious holiday. They had killed Jesus during passover (Matthew 26:17-19, 47). They were also excited about Herod's murder of James. Anyone knows that a mob possesses the courage to do violent acts during religious festivities, not after.
In further considering Herod's position as a Roman, we must remember that the Herods were well known for celebrating (Matthew 14:6-11). In fact, in Matthew chapter 14 we see that a Herod was even willing to kill a man of God during one of his celebrations.
It is elementary to see that Herod, in Acts 12, had arrested Peter during the days of unleavened bread, after the passover. The days of unleavened bread would end on the 21st of April. Shortly after that would come Herod's celebration of pagan Easter. Herod had not killed Peter during the days of unleavened bread simply because he wanted to wait until Easter. Since it is plain that both the Jews (Matthew 26:17-47) and the Romans (Matthew 14:6-11) would kill during a religious celebration, Herod's opinion seemed that he was not going to let the Jews "have all the fun." He would wait until his own pagan festival and see to it that Peter died in the excitement.
So we see that it was God's providence which had the Spirit-filled translators of KJV Bible to CORRECTLY translate "pascha" as "Easter". It most certainly did not refer to the Jewish passover. In fact, to change it to "passover" would confuse anyone reading and make the truth of the situation unclear. You have to ask yourself Aineo why would the KJV translators translate the same word "pascha" as "passover" 28 times, but did not for Acts 12:4. All 6 Spirit filled men of God made the same mistake? I don't think so,for they would have almost had to make a mistake like that deliberately. Translating the same word 28 times correctly and then somehow forgot or made a mistake with the same word and translated it as something else? "Passover" 28 times and oops "Easter" 1 time? I don't think so. You can stick to your NASB which was translated from other "original" manuscripts which were corrupt, but I'll stick to the God inspired KJV, the only bible that translated Acts 12:4 correctly.