Acts 12:1-4
12:1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
KJV
I will repeat you are adding to what is written.
x_m_m_x_ wrote:How? The Feast of Unleavened bread came after Passover, that is truth, and the Feast was when Peter was apprehended according to scripture, that is truth, so why would that verse say, "intending after passover to bring him forth to the people" ? Since the Feast of Unleavened Bread and Easter come after the passover, that verse should have either said, "intending after the Feast of Unleavened Bread to bring him forth to the people", or "intending after Easter.........." Remember verse 3 says "Then were the days of unleavened bread" {the passover was over with since it came before the days of unleavened bread.} In order for Herod to deliver Peter to the people on passover, the passover would have had to come after the feast of unleavened bread not before. The historical truth is 1st- passover, 2nd- Feast of unleavened bread, 3rd- Easter. Since it was the days of unleavened bread in Acts 12 after it was already the passover, Herod had to wait until after Easter to deliver Peter.
Read it more carefully. Herod took Peter captive, "
Then were the days of unleavened bread.". How do you get Passover and the Feast of Unleavened bread were over from what is written? Also if Luke wanted to refer to a pagan festival he would not have referred to it as "pascha". Luke was a Greek and would have called a pagan festival by its correct name. You are grasping at straws to justify a translation error.
If your pastor told you that Easter and Passover plus the Feast of Unleavened Bread are identical he has demonstrated he knows nothing about Judaism and very little concerning early church history. Passover is always celebrated on Nisan 14, which can fall anytime between March 21 and April 25. The pagan festivals that corresponde to Easter would have been held on March 25 (or close to that date) since it is the vernal (or spring) equinox. Ask any Jew what Passover entails and they will tell you it is an 8 day festival that starts with the Passover seder and ends with the 2nd Sabbath of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. The KJ translators screwed up and no matter how you try to rationalize their error they mistranslated "pascha".
I was beginning to admire your knowledge of Scripture but when you pull the same infantile tactics GM uses I wonder if you are really interested in truth. 1 Peter 2:1 does not teach we grow into salvation.
1 Peter 2:1-6
2:1 Therefore, putting aside all malice and all guile and hypocrisy and envy and all slander, 2 like newborn babes, long for the pure milk of the word, that by it you may grow in respect to salvation, 3 if you have tasted the kindness of the Lord. 4 And coming to Him as to a living stone, rejected by men, but choice and precious in the sight of God, 5 you also, as living stones, are being built up as a spiritual house for a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. 6 For this is contained in Scripture:
"Behold I lay in Zion a choice stone, a precious corner stone,
And he who believes in Him shall not be disappointed."
NAS
"That you may grow in
respect to salvation" means to mature in the faith.
Mark 10:24-25
24 And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God!
25 It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
KJV
Mark 10:24-25
24 And the disciples were amazed at His words. But Jesus answered again and said to them, "Children, how hard it is to enter the kingdom of God! 25 "It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God."
NAS
Now taken in context how do these teachings differ? They don't. I am beginning to realize just how petty KJ only people can be in their attempt to detract from newer translations while totally ignoring the reasons why King James wanted a new translation. You may find it difficult to trust the NASB, but I find it difficult to trust a translation where a king demanded certain changes in vocabulary and the translators allowed social prejudice to dictate word choices. The KJ Bible is far from perfect and in spite of your faulty attempts to defend it there are better translations available, including the NASB.
As to 1 John 5:7 you really need to study the history of the English Bible, or are KJ only people afraid of the truth? Those 6 groups of scholars did not translate the Bible they edited the Bishop's Bible and the Geneva Bible into a new Bible so that King James would not be upset.
But back to 1 John 5:7:
This longer reading is found only in eight late manuscripts, four of which have the words in a marginal note. Most of these manuscripts (2318, 221, and [with minor variations] 61, 88, 429, 629, 636, and 918) originate from the 16th century; the earliest manuscript, codex 221 (10th century), includes the reading in a marginal note which was added sometime after the original composition. Thus, there is no sure evidence of this reading in any Greek manuscript until the 1500s; each such reading was apparently composed after Erasmus’ Greek NT was published in 1516. Indeed, the reading appears in no Greek witness of any kind (either manuscript, patristic, or Greek translation of some other version) until AD 1215 (in a Greek translation of the Acts of the Lateran Council, a work originally written in Latin). This is all the more significant, since many a Greek Father would have loved such a reading, for it so succinctly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity.2 The reading seems to have arisen in a fourth century Latin homily in which the text was allegorized to refer to members of the Trinity. From there, it made its way into copies of the Latin Vulgate, the text used by the Roman Catholic Church.
http://www.bible.org/page.asp?page_id=1186