Aineo,
You said,
"You are adding to what is written and changing historical truth."
How? The Feast of Unleavened bread came after Passover, that is truth, and the Feast was when Peter was apprehended according to scripture, that is truth, so why would that verse say, "intending after passover to bring him forth to the people" ? Since the Feast of Unleavened Bread and Easter come after the passover, that verse should have either said, "intending after the Feast of Unleavened Bread to bring him forth to the people", or "intending after Easter.........." Remember verse 3 says "Then were the days of unleavened bread" {the passover was over with since it came before the days of unleavened bread.} In order for Herod to deliver Peter to the people on passover, the passover would have had to come after the feast of unleavened bread not before. The historical truth is 1st- passover, 2nd- Feast of unleavened bread, 3rd- Easter. Since it was the days of unleavened bread in Acts 12 after it was already the passover, Herod had to wait until after Easter to deliver Peter.
My pastor had told me about a year ago that passover and the feast of unleavened bread was a part of Easter, well if that is correct, then it could still be after Easter that Herod delivered Peter to the people as it says in the KJV. Herod delivered Peter to the people after passover, the feast of unleavened bread and Easter, so "Easter" could be the right rendering in the KJV. As I said before, of all the times that "passover" is in the KJV in the New Testament, I trust that the KJV translators knew what they were doing when they rendered Acts 12:4 "Easter". I believe that all 6 of the translators who translated that verse all agreed correctly that "Easter" not "passover" should be in that verse. It is hard for me to trust the NASB anyway when it leaves out words, such as in Matt.6:33, 'But seek first the kingdom, and his righteousness........." Who's kingdom, who's righteousness? The KJV says, "But seek ye first the kingdom OF GOD......."
Let me ask you a question, does a person grow into salvation? Your NASB says so, for it says, "You may grow in respect to salvation" in 1 Peter 2:2. You don't grow INTO salvation, you get saved immediately upon asking Christ to save you. The KJV says, "ye may grow thereby" meaning that a christian grows in his christian life as far as growing in faith, and in knowledge. That verse in your NASB has salvation as a process, and you tell GM that the NASB is superior? Before I log off for today, here is another example, wouldn't you agree that it is hard for a person who trusts in riches to enter into the kingdom of God? That is what it says in Mark 10:24 in the KJV, while your NASB just says, "Children, how hard it is to enter the kingdom of God" It leaves out "that trust in riches". Are you going to say that the KJV translators just added "that trust in riches" ? You say that they added 1 John 5:7, well, where did they get those words from? You have to admit, there is something wrong with the NASB, NIV, and others. I can't go with a "bible" that omits things that are in the KJV. Have a nice evening.