Are you being purposely obtuse? By showing Peter unclean foods are now clean Peter discerned that gentiles were to be part of the New Covenant. The dietary laws have been changed (annulled.) This is further demonstrated by the action taken by the Council of Jerusalem.
I showed you what the Law specified concerning gentiles and how they were to be treated by the Jews, and you still insist that when Peter referred to Jewish tradition as the Law, he was not appealing to God’s Law. So you are using traditions that Jesus condemned making an invalid point.
Again are you being purposely obtuse in regard to my question regarding Jesus is the Passover for Christians? The Law mandates animal sacrifices by the Levites for the atonement of individual sins and the observance of Yom Kippur to atone for national sins. If you have studied Hebrews Jesus is now our High Priest, which also changes the Law as given to Moses. So with Jesus fulfilling these requirements of the Law, the Law was altered (changed). Therefore when we do not observe these Old Covenant Laws we are in fact transgressing the Laws as given to Moses.
Your analysis of Acts 15 is ludicrous, which is why I have ignored what you posted. One of the actions of the Council of Jerusalem referred to refraining from eating blood the council did not demand that gentiles observe the dietary laws, be circumcised, and etc.
Acts 15:19-20
19 "Therefore it is my judgment that we do not trouble those who are turning to God from among the Gentiles, 20 but that we write to them that they abstain from things contaminated by idols and from fornication and from what is strangled and from blood.
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Verse 19 is only half a thought and your interpretation of this one verse is not backed up when taken in full context. James (as Bishop of Jerusalem) states they will not trouble the gentiles with anything greater than abstaining from things contaminated by idols, fornication, from what is strangled and from blood. Now go back to the verse 1 and read why the council was called. James does not mention circumcision so I suppose it is your contention that all male gentile believers are to be circumcised in accordance with the Law? Where does common sense come into your interpretation of Scripture?
Who goes to the synagogue? Jews, not gentiles so I fail to see your point regarding verse 21. The obvious meaning of this verse is that since gentile believers do not participate in the synagogue Jews would not be offended by the fact gentiles are not required to observe Jewish traditions and celebrations.
As to your comment that you will leave this discussion because I have refused your personal interpretation of the Scriptures I will repeat that is your usual tactic. As to name calling what do you think calling me carnal is doing?
Rom 3:31 states that we establish the law. So if we establish the law, being under grace, how do you figure that we walk contrary to it under grace?
Secondly, Paul states that the law is he knew what sin was. So if the law is what informs us of sin, should we continue to sin?
Once again you are pulling one verse totally out of context. Who is Paul addressing in Romans 3?
Romans 3:1-4
3:1 Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? 2 Great in every respect. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God. 3 What then? If some did not believe, their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it? 4 May it never be! Rather, let God be found true, though every man be found a liar, as it is written,
"That Thou mightest be justified in Thy words,
And mightest prevail when Thou art judged."
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Jews not gentile believers. Paul is always careful not to offend those Jewish believers who continued to practice their traditions (which is why he had Timothy circumcised).
As to your second comment the Law is how Paul knew he is a sinner, he does not state that gentiles are aware of Jewish Law. And after Paul states that because of the Law he knows he is a sinner he writes:
Romans 8:1-2
8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death.
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What is the “law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus” that has set us free from the “law of sin and death”?