Christian/Muslim ThreadsWE, US. OUR !!!!!!!!!!To determine the actual meaning of a word the wise thing to do is to look at its numerous usage and how it is used to determined an authentic meaning. For a fact the Hebrew word "Elohim" which is plural of "eloahh" has three given interpretations 1) When applied to the Creator it means "G-d" expressing the plural of majesty 2) When applied to other than the Creator it stickly means "gods" 3) When applied to the Creator the plural "Elohim" is making reference to the Christian trinity whom reject "#1)" the plural of majesty concept. Thus it maintains the singular meaning like the plural of majesty but expressing the truine G-d in the singular according to christian dogma. A)It is obvious those who translate "Elohim" as "a god" in Exo 7:1 are trinitarians as it would be inconsistane with their beliefs to render "Elohim" as "G-d" applied to Moses which would run into conflict as Moses is only one Person but called ascribed to in the plural. B)As for those translators who render "Elohim" as "G-d" these are those who believe it to be the plural of majesty. When applied to Moses it implied also the plural of Majest or Respect as Moses came with powers of Majesty like a god to the Egyptians whom was also feared like a god. As for the Gospel according to John 1:1 there is serious grammar at hand dealing with nomative and accusative readings. en arche en ho logos kai ho logos en pros ton theon kai theos en ho logos houtos en en arche pros ton theon In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (ton theon), and the Word was God (theos), the same (?) was in the beginning with God (ton theon). [Gospel According to John 1:1] Now before we go into the greek lets just look at this context and the inference it is alluding to. The Logos is said here to have been with Ton Theon (G-d or literally "the god") automatically this phrase expresses two intenties as one being with the other in the begining as the context expresses. The next phrase "..and the word was God (theos).." followed by "..the same (?) was in the beginning with God (ton theon). Grammatically this is expressing two gods were in the begining whereas the word was of a lesser god whom was with the supreme G-d. As for Christian interpretation it is taken as speaking about one and the same G-d. As for the geek word "Theos" being used in the context without the article "the" ie "ton" or "ho" its justification of its absents is that there was no reason for it grammatically but if this is true then why bring it back into the last phrase "..the same (?) was in the beginning with God (ton theon)" One thing I would agree is that "theos" does not always mean "a god". It can means also "G-d" depending on the context it is being used in. In the context about grammatically speaking it is denoting another god. And yes, the Gospel According to John 1:1 is a completely different issue from Exo 7:1 and have no relation to each other in my opinion. "AS" <~~~~~Does not exist in the hebrew which would have been properly supported by the Hebrew word "kemow". Can you please explain to me how "as" was introduced here and for what reason. I already know what it is, I want to see what you are going to say hoping you will start to realize the reality of defectiveness in translations to be suited to be the word of G-d from its original. |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame