hisway, you really like to merge Scripture from different books to come up with you own interpretations don't you?
Acts 2:38
38 And Peter said to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. NAS
John the Baptist is the only person who used the phrase “baptize you with the Holy Spirit”. This phrase is used in all four gospels, however Matthew and Luke add “and fire”. There is only one Biblical account where any human being was “baptized with the Holy Spirit and fire”.
Acts 2:1-4
2:1 And when the day of Pentecost had come, they were all together in one place. 2 And suddenly there came from heaven a noise like a violent, rushing wind, and it filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared to them tongues as of fire distributing themselves, and they rested on each one of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance. NAS
Now what is interesting is that Peter is not recorded as beginning “to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance”. Peter preached in his native language, which was Aramaic while the balance of the 120 spoke in other known languages.
Acts 2:5-8
5 Now there were Jews living in Jerusalem, devout men, from every nation under heaven. 6 And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were bewildered, because they were each one hearing them speak in his own language. 7 And they were amazed and marveled, saying, "Why, are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 "And how is it that we each hear them in our own language to which we were born?
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The phrase “gift of the Spirit” is used only by Peter and he only uses this phrase in Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:45. No other Scripture equates the “gift of the Spirit” with tongues.
You have made an assertion concerning Acts 10:48 that is incorrect. Peter did not order Cornelius to be baptized, Peter ordered or commanded the Jews to baptize a gentile.
Acts 10:46-48
47 "Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?" 48 And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days. NAS
What does “repent” mean? Repent is generally taken to mean, “turn from sin”; however it can also be understood to mean, “turn or return to God” and is used in this context by John the Baptist and the OT prophets. No man can become sin conscious until he becomes God conscious and it is God who gives man the ability and desire to repent. Who was Peter preaching to in Acts 2:38? God-fearing Jews who had wandered away from God’s truth, so Peter is calling Jews to return to God through faith in Jesus the Messiah.
You are so intent on justifying your personal theology you have chosen to disregard every “sound doctrine” found outside a couple verses in Acts.
hisway wrote:This simply shows the grace of God granting repentance. However, unless one actually "repents" that grace cannot be applied. So, I ask again is repentance a work for salvation? One cannot obtain the grace God offered here unless they repent. The grace is conditional upon doing the repenting, correct? If one never repents, then what? It is the same for water baptism. The grace of remission of sins is conditional upon getting water baptized. If water baptism is a work for salvation then repentance must also be a work for salvation. On the other hand, if repentance is a grace then water baptism must also be a grace. How is grace obtained? Through faith, correct? And faith without works is dead, correct? Therefore, repentance is work of faith the same as water baptism is a work of faith which in turn obtains the grace.
Now you are trying to show that salvation is conditional and the conditions that precede salvation are repentance, works, and baptism. This concept totally violates God’s grace and makes God’s grace something we as human beings can earn. How is grace obtained?
Romans 3:23-24
24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
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Romans 5:15-17
15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned; for on the one hand the judgment arose from one transgression resulting in condemnation, but on the other hand the free gift arose from many transgressions resulting in justification. 17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.
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Romans 6:22-23
23 For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. NAS
Ephesians 2:8-10
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; 9 not as a result of works, that no one should boast.
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Ephesians 3:6-7
7 of which I was made a minister, according to the gift of God's grace which was given to me according to the working of His power.
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Ephesians 4:7
7 But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of Christ's gift.
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If anyone on this forum is teaching and promoting heresy it is you not those who accept the Trinity as sound Biblical doctrine. You cannot buy your way into God’s grace or His kingdom.