Hello hisway!

hisway wrote:Again I have explained this point numerous times. The omnipresent Spirit of the Father was: 1. In Heaven and 2. Indwelt the human body of the Son together at the same time. Where was the omnipresent Spirit of the Father? 1. In Heaven and 2. Indwelling the body of the Son thus in both places at the same time. Where was the human spirit of the Son? In the human body of the Son - where else could it be? I already stated that in my last post. Are you playing games with me pretending you did not read that already? Part of the problem is the issue regarding the name of Jesus which Jesus as a man said, "I have manifested Thy [the Father's] name..." (John 17:6). And again Jesus said, "And I have declared unto them Thy [the Father's] name. (John 17:26).

"Jesus was Omnipresent and Limited at the same time"... As a Spirit (Father) He was omnipresent and as a man (Son) He was limited. How else could it be? Even according to the trinity doctrine the Son was limited as a man, you admitted that yourself in the following:

Actually your missing the point my friend, you fail to understand common logic which is to be easily understood by anyone with the reasoning of a child, nobody is playing games here but you. I have manifested [Thy] Fathers will or my [Jesus'] will? And have declared they[the Father's]name or my[Jesus']name. According to you there is only one name, isn’t that what you teach. Once again hisway nobody is playing games but yourself and you have outdone yourself this time. Your posts are filled with contradictions and you fail to stick with even your own theology at times, mingling truth with falsehood. Oh, hisway when will your obstinate heart submit to the Truth and when you cease striving against the Holy Ghost? Furthermore the voice of the Father from Heaven does not resonate from within the Son but from Heaven to the Son on Earth!

hisway wrote:Why don't you re-read my posts or read them more carefully to begin with? I plainly stated in my posts on this same thread that the omnipresent Spirit of the Father was 1. in heaven and 2. indwelling the body of the Son (on earth) at the same time. I just repeated this again in this post above. The human spirit of the Son was not omnipresent - why? - because He was human. Again you keep referring to the name of Jesus as only applying to the Son as a separate person and the Father having a different name which is not true. The confusion relating to the name of Jesus is a rotton fruit the trinity doctrine produces. As I stated many times throughout this forum and above in this post that the name of Jesus is the revealed name of the ONE God. The Son manifested and declared the name of the Father (John 17:6 and 17:26). And by inheritance the Son obtained His name from the Father (Heb 1:4) And that name is Jesus.

Re-read your posts? Hisway once again nobody is playing games but you, who are desperately using circular logic to worm your way out of my refutations. Re-read your posts!!!
1. You first state: the omnipresent Spirit of the Father was 1. In heaven and 2. Indwelling the body of the Son (on earth) at the same time
2. Then you go on to say:The human spirit of the Son was not omnipresent - why? - because He was human.
Why would the Son NOT BE OMNIPRESENT, if the OMNIPRESENT SPIRIT of the Father was IN THE HUMAN SON??
So you have ONE Omnipresent Spirit in the Son and in Heaven and then you have ONE Human Spirit which is not Omnipresent, HOW MANY SPIRITS DOES THAT MAKE??? 1+1= HOW MANY???
You never cease to amaze me with your circular logic my friend, just admit it, your theology of God is FLAWED!!!

hisway wrote:

Furthermore you skipped my argument: John 17:5 - And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
So Did the Human Jesus and His Human will share the Glory with the Omnipresent Father before the foundation of the world?

What Glory did the Son have before the foundation of the world? The Glory He had as the ONE omnipresent Spirit. Again Jesus was speaking out of a dual nature. The Divine nature - the Spirit of the Father indwelling (the body) of the Son pre-existed in eternal Glory. At the moment Jesus was praying that prayer He was in a state of high anxiety for He knew His time was at hand. His humanity was struggling against the Spirit. He was sweating beads of blood. He realized by the Spirit the Glory He had as the ONE omnipresent Spirit before He took on the form of a human body. There is no other possiblity. As I stated before it is impossible for a co-eternal Son to change His attribute of being omnipresent. And it is another impossibilty the Son pre-existed as non-omnipresent Spirit otherwise He was not co-equal in attributes. Either way the trinity contradicts both those possibilities.

WOW Jesus had a DUAL NATURE BEFORE the Foundation of the World??? Christ had a body before the foundation of the World???
So according to you Jesus had a Human and Divine Nature before the Foundation of the World?? Or better yet, The Spirit of the Father indwelling (the body) of the Son pre-existed WITH WHO OR WHAT? The Human Spirit existed with the Divine Spirit, once again we have two spirits! Key word"(with)" And if I misunderstood you then when Did God become Flesh? Re-read your own posts! According to what you said, the Dual Nature consists of the Human and Divine, therefore the Human Nature existed Before the Foundation of the World, according to SCRIPTURES, God became Flesh at the incarnation, do you deny this??? Anyone can see for themselves how your caught in your own error and making it appear as if I am the one who is misconstruing your posts. Scriptures DO NOT TEACH that God had a human nature BEFORE the INCARNATION! Either way, your teaching is erroneous. Stop teaching False Doctrines!!!

hisway wrote:"[the Son] Who being the brightness of His [the Father's] glory"... Where do you get the simple verb "being" means "eternally being"? The phrase "being the brightness" in the Greek is "aman" meaning "to go to the right hand -- to be faithful of long continuance, to be true or certain, to be permanent, etc. (Strong's 539, 541). In other words this phrase is simply stating the express image of the Father the Son reveals is true and certain - accurately revealing the Father's person to us. Therefore, when we see Jesus as the Son (visible form) we have an accurate visual image of the Father (invisible form). It also implies "to go to the right hand" that the visible form (Son) has been exalted into a position of power and authority.

I never said Jesus was not Deity as the Son. He was Deity as the Father revealed in bodily form. The humanity of Jesus was not Deity otherwise how could the human part die? If the humanity was Deity that would mean God died as omnipresent Spirit in human form. God cannot die except the human form He took on. Jesus refered to Himself as "Son of God" - Deity, and "Son of Man" - humanity. Thus describing His dual nature.The Divine attributes Jesus ascribed to as a man during His earthly life were those of the Father's according to His Divine nature. But if the trinity were true a pre-existent Son did have His Divine attributes taken from Him namely the attributes of being "omnipresent" and "all-knowing" as I explained recently on this thread. But in Oneness all those contradictions are removed.. The "Brightness" spoken of here refers to a radiance or a shining forth of the divine glory. As the rays are intrinsically related to the sun, with neither one existing apart from the other, so the Father and the Son are essentially one. Furthermore the Son is the "express image" or imprint of the Fathers person(nature). The radiant light implies the oneness of the Son with the Father; the imprint expresses the distinctness of the Son from the Father. Yet, oneness and distinctness are implicit in each; thus, they enhance and balance each other.
What radient light? What radiance or shining forth of Divine Glory? What rays related to the sun? See Strongs 539, 541 for the meaning of "being the brightness" as I already explained here above.

Your Greek is also terrible!

Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high: Hebrews 1:2,3

Hebrews 1:3 - Who being{oan} the brightness{apaugasma} of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:
oan:Being
apaugasma:Shining forth, of a light coming from a luminous body.

Try going directly to that verse and see how the word for "being" and "the brightness" is used in its correct context and in no other section of the Bible and you will then see how your interpretation and the rest of it go hand in hand in error.

John 16:7 - Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

According to your theology hisway, if Jesus doesn't leave the earth and ascend to heaven, He is not able to send (Himself) back from heaven to the earth."

John 14:16 - And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;

Another{allos}:another or other
Other: \An*oth"er\, pron. & a. [An a, one + other.]1. One more, in addition to a former number; a second or additional one, similar in likeness or in effect.
Courtesy of Hyperdictionary!
Once again according to your theology, Jesus asked Himself to send Himself!

So according to you we have, th Human Spirit, the Omnipresent Spirit of the Father and then ANOTHER(Holy Spirit){allos}Comforter!
Further refutation in which you failed to answer:

John 12:28 - Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again.

Now according to your theology, this is a communication between Jesus’ Humanity and His Deity. This is clearly a conversation between two persons, unless your trying to say that the Omnipresent spirit of God the Father in Heaven speaking to the Human Jesus on Earth is dual nature? Do we have dual natures? And if so, do we speak with ourselves?

Forget something hisway, you wrote this now please answer!

(Omega) wrote:

The verse could read "I THE ONE OMNIPRESENT GOD came down from heaven, not to do mine own will [as the human form of the Son] but the will of [the ONE omnipresent Spirit God]..." Jesus as a man had a human will the same as any other human would.

Why would and "OMNIPRESENT" SPIRIT need to come down from Heaven if it is OMNIPRESENT?

Admit it hisway, your desperately making an all out effort to try and refute something you obviously CANNOT!

God Bless!

Lets make a comparison between Spirit and Nature.

• Human Nature
• Divine Nature
• Human Spirit
• Divine Spirit

Spirit and Nature are not the same by definition.

According to you, Jesus had a "Dual" Spirit! Should we replace "Spirit" with "Nature" whenever the word Spirit is used in Scriptures? One should
be "quick to hear and slow to speak"not "slow to hear and quick to speak"
Even if you made a vain attempt at providing a link between Spirit and Nature, your theology remains flawed.
1. The Nature of the Human Spirit
2. The Nature of the Divine Spirit.

You still have 2 spirits, understand?
We are done here hisway, your theology of the Godhead has been proven fallacious beyond reasonable doubt. Now we move on to the "Will" Portion of your argument. If Christ (CAME NOT) to do His "Human Will" but His "Divine Will", then we have 2 wills. One Human and the OTHER Divine. Furthermore your Dual Nature does not work here either. What was Christs "Human" will in the First place? Since He opted not to perform His own Human will?
God is now between 2 separate wills, once again "will" and "Nature" are NOT THE SAME!!
Christ stating that He "CAME NOT" to do His"OWN" Will but the Fathers is suggesting 2 separate wills, which are both DIVINE!
Whether it is HUMAN or DIVINE, should it not be "HIS" OWN WILL??? And not His Fathers?

Jesus says that He is not here to do His Human will but His Divine will, Whether Divine or Human, Is it not Still "HIS WILL" Did Jesus say that He was doing His will or the Fathers? Furthermore the Scriptures state that he that doeth the (will of God) abideth for ever.1 John 2:17

But according to your theology, He that doeth the "Nature of God" abideth forever. Do you possess the Divine Nature of God? Your not only re-defining vocabulary but Scriptures as well!

I have DISECTED your theology of the Godhead and exposed its heretical teachings. You are utterly deceived. Hisway, I think it is you who needs to give your False Doctrine a rest.

God Bless!