Evangelion wrote:(Omega) wrote:Which is to say that If you forgive the sins of any, their sins have (already) been forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they have (already) been retained."
And how do you arrive at
that conclusion? On what basis do you claim that this is what the verse is saying? Talk about twisting Scripture! :roll:
There is
nothing in that verse which says that their sins have
already been forgiven. Indeed, any such statement would be completely meaningless!
It's like saying "And if you bake the cake, the cake has already been baked." Which makes no sense at all.
I also notice that you had to
add a word to the verse - a word which
isn't in the text. This is a clear sign that you can't accept the words of Scripture in their original form. In short, you have presented nothing which supports your interpretation.
The verse says that
if the disciples forgive the sins of people,
then those sins will be forgiven. It's right there in black and white.
By leaning on your own understanding and Gnostic interpretations you fall victim to deceit. I believe that it's time to remove those shades.
There's nothing Gnostic about my interpretation. And I'm willing to bet that you wouldn't know what Gnosticism was if it bit you in the leg.