OK, finally I am prepared enough to proceed.
First, I should say that the subject of this thread is a question that resulted from my reading, studying and preparing the material I will post in the future in a thread entitled “Why was imperfection allowed?” The two subjects are inseparable and the truths revealed by the Bible about the one subject helps to understand the other.
Second, I read the information to which you all referred me, well at least most of it, certainly enough to recognize the ideas and beliefs even if I did not recognize the terminology, at first. I also went to several other sites, pro and con, and read until I got dizzy from going around in circles. I have no idea what everyone’s beliefs might be and how those beliefs might compare to the very wide and contradictory spectrum of beliefs I found. That variety of beliefs certainly did not surprise me, but I normally would consider it a handicap to not know what a persons personal beliefs are and it also does make it a little hard to decide exactly where to start. That is why I normally try to pick out one or two persons to talk to and I try to determine what they believe then based on that decide how to proceed. But this time rather than worry about what you all may believe (heck, some of you possibly might not even know for sure) and taking a lot of time and effort to establish some common definitions and common ground, let me just lay out why I reject the vast majority of what I read on most all the sites I visited. That is to say that, this time I think I will try something different for me and I am going to answer my own question: “Is the invitation implied at John 3:16 actually an invitation open to all?” and see if anyone can show me where I got it wrong. Hopefully this will save us all much time and effort. If it does not work I can always go back to my old ways.
OK, now let’s breakdown the scripture and see what we learn:
The first thing and, to me, the most important thing we learn is of God’s love. Everything else in this scripture is based on or comes about because of that ultimate act of love. So if there is an “invitation implied” it is because of that love and understanding that love is what will cause us to understand the invitation and whether or not it is truly an “open” invitation. Whatever “God’s love” is that “implied invitation” is also. If that is not true then I submit that we will find God to be, at the very least, inconsistent and possibly even contradictory and I do not for one instant believe that God is either of those things.
Interestingly, when it comes to God the Bible does not spell out an exact definition of what God’s love is or is not such as it does for man’s love (one example is at 1 Corinthians chapter 13). God’s love is always defined by and associated with his actions or demonstrations of that love. Even Jesus, within his parables and within his ‘discussions or definitions’ of God’s love, always seems to connect God’s love to actions that “show” what love is rather than by defining it with words. Another way of knowing about God’s love is by considering Jesus’ example. The last way to come to know about God’s love is by considering how we are instructed to show love. However, even after all that being said, for the purposes of this discussion (in an effort to make this reasonably brief) I must resort to and rely on word definitions.
One very popular qualifier, description or definition of God’s love is “unconditional.” Let me ask you, does “unconditional” love have any, what so ever, preconditions? At John 3:16 John tells us of the prime or ultimate example of this “unconditional” love, correct? For that to be so, does it not require that everything to do with that act of love must also be “unconditional” and without any, what so ever, preconditions? Therefore, I submit to you that the invitation implied at John 3:16 is “unconditional” and is without any, what so ever, preconditions. That means that the prime or ultimate example of God’s love was, in fact, just exactly that “unconditional” and can be, no, more than that, must be judged to be so in accordance with all God’s own standards; otherwise God becomes, at the very least, inconsistent and possibly even contradictory.
To show you what I mean let’s consider some of God’s stated “standards” that must consistently apply to this act of love and the invitation that is implicit within it. First, Matthew 5:43-48: “YOU heard that it was said, ‘You must love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ However, I say to YOU: Continue to love YOUR enemies and to pray for those persecuting YOU; that YOU may prove yourselves sons of YOUR Father who is in the heavens, since he makes his sun rise upon wicked people and good and makes it rain upon righteous people and unrighteous. For if YOU love those loving YOU, what reward do YOU have? Are not also the tax collectors doing the same thing? And if YOU greet YOUR brothers only, what extraordinary thing are YOU doing? Are not also the people of the nations doing the same thing? YOU must accordingly be perfect, as YOUR heavenly Father is perfect.”
Second, Luke’s parallel account at Luke 6:27-36: “But I say to YOU who are listening, Continue to love YOUR enemies, to do good to those hating YOU, to bless those cursing YOU, to pray for those who are insulting YOU. To him that strikes you on the one cheek, offer the other also; and from him that takes away your outer garment, do not withhold even the undergarment. Give to everyone asking you, and from the one taking your things away do not ask [them] back.
“Also, just as YOU want men to do to YOU, do the same way to them.
“And if YOU love those loving YOU, of what credit is it to YOU? For even the sinners love those loving them. And if YOU do good to those doing good to YOU, really of what credit is it to YOU? Even the sinners do the same. Also, if YOU lend [without interest] to those from whom YOU hope to receive, of what credit is it to YOU? Even sinners lend [without interest] to sinners that they may get back as much. To the contrary, continue to love YOUR enemies and to do good and to lend [without interest], not hoping for anything back; and YOUR reward will be great, and YOU will be sons of the Most High, because he is kind toward the unthankful and wicked. Continue becoming merciful, just as YOUR Father is merciful.” In line with all the principles stated there this ultimate act of love MUST BE “unconditional.”
Let me use an illustration to drive the point home. As a loving parent you want to give something of great value to your child to demonstrate your love. So you decide to buy him Babe Ruth’s ‘Louisville Slugger’ bat and the baseball that Hank Aaron hit to set the all-time homerun record. You bring them home and place them in his lap and tell him, “Now run along and play ball with all your little friends.” Oh! I left out one little detail. Your child is a quadriplegic in a wheelchair. Is that “perfect” or “kind” or “merciful” of you? The same would be true of God if he extended the invitation of John 3:16 knowing all the while that you can not possibly take advantage of it because you had not been pre-selected or pre-elected or pre-chosen by him. That is not the God I love and worship.
Therefore, the invitation implied at John 3:16 is “unconditionally” open to all without any, what so ever, preconditions—including God’s foreknowledge and (s)election.
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