Dear Omega,
Now that I have had some time to pray about a reply to your comments and do some research I will respond. But first I must say you have missed and/or distorted the points I tried to make. And to say I lack spiritual insight, well let's see about that.
1. "How did the Son claim to have shared the Glory with the Father before the world even came into existence?" (John 17:5)
John 1:1-3: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made."
Before the beginning God had no need of a form. He was omnipresent Spirit dwelling alone so there was no else to have seen Him. But since He desired to be seen in His creation it was necessary for Him to create a VISIBLE MANISFESTATION of Himself. This form or visible manifestation would be everything that He Himself was except in reduced, visible form. This was not another person who was God but God Himself dwelling in visible form. This form He took would be the same form as the angels who would be the first of His living creation. That way when they were created He would be sitting there on His throne and would explain to them who they were and what He was. So they would not be seeing Him as omnipresent Spirit, they would be seeing Him in angelic form as the image of the invisible God. The Greek for *Word* in these Scriptures is *Logos*. Many meanings are given for this word in Strong's concordance. In context the one that seems to fit here is *THE DIVINE EXPRESSION*. For this visible angelic manisfestation of the Spirit of God would be the full expression of His character and glory. Therefore the "ANGEL OF THE LORD" was the Word. And the Word was the "ANGEL OF THE LORD" in O.T. times as in Genesis 32:24-30, Exodus 3:14, Isaiah 6:1-5, Isaiah 63:7-9, Hosea 12:3-5, and in many other passages throughout Scripture. That is why in 1John 4:12 and 1Tim 6:16 we are told God has never been seen because God is a Spirit who reveals Himself via manisfestations.
So when we are told, in the beginning was the Word, it means the beginning of time. The word existed from the beginning of time but the One who dwelt in the Word existed from eternity. So at creation the Word (Angel of the Lord) spoke and the omnipresent Spirit moved to bring all things into being. We are told the Word was with God. It was a separate PORTION of His own being - not a separate person. So when John says, and the Word was God, he is not implying the existence of two gods. Rather he is showing that the image of the invisible God is the ETERNAL GOD HIMSELF.
John 1:14: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."
When the time came for God to redeem fallen mankind, something happened to the Word. The Word had always dwelt in omnipresent Spirit. To become our Saviour He would have to have a human nature including a body of flesh. At just the right moment, the omnipresent Holy Spirit transformed the Word into a seed small enough to fit into the womb of a young virgin named Mary as in Matthew 1:18 and Luke 1:35. Notice in both those verses it is the Holy Ghost (omnipresent Spirit) who is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. All during the years of His life when Jesus spoke of, and prayed to His Father He was talking about the Holy Ghost. Now the Word which was God's visible image had been changed from spirit to flesh. So this child who was born, this Son who was given, had pre-existed as THE MIGHTY GOD, and EVERLASTING FATHER. (Isaiah 9:6).
2. "Is the Spirit of the Father going to commit His own Spirit unto Himself? (Luke 23:46)"
As a human being on earth Jesus was a man, the Son of God. At the same time in heaven He still remained God - Everlasting Father. Nothing could be more simple. He was fully man and fully God both at the same time. While He was here as a human being He knew the same limitations and temptations as any other man yet without sin. Yet the nature of the heavenly Father also dwelt in the body of the Son. So even though in Christ there are separate natures or modes of existence He still tells us they are linked together. This is what Jesus meant when He said, "My Father is greater than I". The God nature that He still held in His heavenly existence in which also was linked to and dwelling in His human body was greater than His human nature. So on the cross His Father (Spirit) withdrew from Him (physical body) allowing Him to die and pay the full price for guilty sinners. He did not have two spirits! It was the One and only Spirit of the Father that dwelt in the body (Son) according to John 14:10.
3. "How is it possible that Jesus can sit down with the Father on His throne if Jesus somehow shifted modes and then became the Father?" (Rev 5:6,7)
When Jesus ascended into heaven we are clearly told He became a quickening spirit. (1Cor 15:45). And notice what Jesus said, "It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you..." (John 16:7). There was a reason why this had to happen. So that He might fill all things. (Eph 4:10). As a human being He could not fill all things. He was once again now to take back His role as The Word. He would be made spirit again. Yet as being Almighty God He is still able within His Spirit nature as God to maintain His human body to manifest as He so desires. But now as Spirit He is able to come into the hearts of those who believe on him, fulfilling the role of the Comforter (Holy Spirit) on our lives. For the Holy Spirit is Christ in you, the hope of glory. (Col 1:27)
Specifically in the verse Rev 5:6 you quoted you are referring to the "Lamb having seven horns and seven eyes which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth." This is simply another manisfestation of the One God. Since when does Jesus literally have seven horns and seven eyes? And you say I'm the one who lacks spiritual insight? But since you also refer to who sits on the throne lets look at Rev 22:3-5:
"And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and His servants shall serve Him: And they shall see His face; and His name shall be in their foreheads. And there shall be no night there; and they need no candle, neither light of sun; for the Lord God giveth them light; and they shall reign for ever and ever."
Notice the throne of God and the Lamb IS SINGULAR. Also His servants shall serve Him - NOT THEM. They shall see His face - NOT THEIR FACES. And His name - NOT THEIR NAMES shall be in their foreheads. It is called the throne of God and of the Lamb. We know the Lamb is Jesus. Who is the Lord God that giveth them light? Thomas answered that when he said to Jesus, "MY LORD AND MY GOD". So the throne of God is occupied by ONE person who is BOTH God and the Lamb. That is why Hebrews 1:8 says the Son's throne endures forever. Therefore, since we are created in the image of God with a mind, soul (spirit) and body, we see that God also can have a soul (Spirit) and body and be one person with one name. We are not three persons in our one body. Therefore we are a three-fold being, and by manisfestation, one person. For example, a man who is married and has children, he is a husband and a father. Yet he is also someone's son. He is a father and a son at the same time but is he two distinct persons? That is how ridiculous the trinity doctrine is.
4. Re: Matthew 28:19
This is a verse that many scholars now believe was corrupted by adding the words *baptize* and *Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost* to Matthew's Gospel. The correct wording quoted by Eusebius some twenty one times in his massive works was: "Go ye therefore and teach all nations and make disciples in my name". The other words were added to the original Matthew 28:19. Scholars now admit this happened but keep it a secret because it helps them prove the trinity. Jerome in his translation of the Latin Vulgate, which is the pattern of all future translations, interpolated this text into his new translation. From this it came into the KJV. The original baptism mode as used by the early Church is found in Acts 2:38. Baptism was always in the name of Jesus in one manner or another. That is why no where in the Acts of the Apostles did they ever repeat the words of Matthew 28:19 in water baptism. Moreover, in 1995, Dr. George Howard translated a copy of Shem Tov's Matthew Hebrew Gospel which is available for purchase to anyone who wants a copy. And it is the proof the trinity was fraudulently added to this text. This results in adding to and taking away from God's Word thereby putting it under God's curse Rev 22:18,19. And to say that by baptizing in the name of Jesus is baptizing into a role shows how much the trinity doctrine has twisted up your understanding. How many millions of souls have been lost due to the trinity baptism formula? But this brings in the issue of His name which I will address in my next post.
You have accused me of modalism. And yet the truth that a belief in a trinity of 'Three Persons' in the Godhead, in modern language, is nothing less than tri-theism. The trinitarian godhead doctrine was fabricated at Nicea in 325 AD by intellectual theologians without any Spiritual revelation.
But the real issue is this: If Jesus is not the Father and the Father is a separate person then what is the Father's name? Could it be Yahweh or Jehovah? Watch for my next post for that to be addressed.