ArchivedJesuss Deity... :: To OmegaTo Omega
I certainly can read and see what is going on ... it says nothing about a triune God at work! Nope! The scripture portray no such thing. What you clearly see here is the ONE GOD of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob; the GOD and Father of Jesus of Nazareth; anointing the man Jesus of Nazareth, GOD’s son, with holy spirit and power; hence Jesus is the Anointed One, The Christ. Peter said (Acts 10:38 ) How [1] God anointed [2] Jesus of Nazareth with [3] the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him. Peter said nothing about GOD being 3 in 1 i.e. triune Isaiah said (Isa 61:1) [1] The spirit of [2] Adonai YAHWEH is upon me [3 The Messiah]; because YAHWEH hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; No Jewish reader of Isaiah went away after reading this verse, believing that GOD therefore must be 3 in 1 i.e. triune Back to Matthew 3:16-17 There you are ... ONE GOD anointing a man with His holy spirit. Why does that make GOD triune? There is nothing triune about that! Jesus isn’t the first man to be anointed with GOD’s spirit. However he is the man who has been anointed above his fellows ... as John said Jesus was given not the Spirit without measure [John 3:34, Heb 1:9, Psa 45:7] Agreed there are 3 elements at work here... 1) GOD 2) His Son, a man, namely, Jesus of Nazareth 3) The holy spirit of GOD But this does not make GOD triune! I am sure there are cases in Scripture where there are 4 or 5 elements at work. Would that make God quadriune or quintune?? LOL
What is so difficult about this expression? A child can understand it! It may be difficult to those who adhere to a doctrine that neither Jesus, Paul nor the rest of the Apostles taught; but the early church had no difficulty with it. The so-called Church fathers may have had difficulty ... Athanasius may have done ... but the early church hadn’t. It’s plain. Jesus the Son of the Father was subordinate to GOD in his earthly ministry. Yes, he has highly been exalted. However, no matter how high GOD has exalted him, GOD will always be his GOD and Father. Christ will always be subordinate to Him. GOD has no equal - nothing has changed that! Every ‘being’, whether human or angelic, mortal or supernatural, every ‘being’ is subordinate to the ONE GOD. YAHWEH has no equals. Agreed, Jesus functionally represents GOD ... He is GOD’s agent ... however that does not make him (co-)equal to GOD. As I said before, GOD has made Jesus, Lord of all, however GOD is NOT subject to anyone, including Jesus. It is clearly the other way round [1 Cor 15:27-28, John 10:29, 14:28] Of course, 1 Cor 15:27-28 is talking about the Son’s subordination to the Father. It’s not difficult – it’s easy!!
Hmmm. Rather at the end of the millennium, that is, when all the his enemies have been made a footstool and all mankind has been judged accordingly, then the Messianic Kingdom will indeed be handed to GOD. However, the Messianic Kingdom has NOT yet arrived! The Messianic Kingdom, the Kingdom of GOD & Christ, will not be inaugurated and administered until Christ comes! It is THEN that the apostles and all those that are Christ’s at his coming/parousia [1 Cor 15:23] will reign and administer with Christ. [2 Tim 2:12, Rev 5:9-10, 20:6, Matt 19:28]
Hence Christ gave the parable as recorded in Luke 19:11ff. Note how the faithful servants received authority to administer over ten and five cities. That is, they were given authority to administer in the nobleman’s kingdom. The Messiah, the Son of Man, of course is the nobleman. The far country is Heaven, where Jesus is currently at the Right Hand of GOD. Therefore, AT HIS RETURN, he will come with ‘the Kingdom of GOD’ (i.e. Luke 19:16 when he was returned, having received the kingdom).
Thus, at Christ’s Parousia, this is when we shall literally see all things put under him!
Huh!!! Rev 1:18 is talking about Jesus, the son of GOD. It is not talking about the Living GOD who is portrayed by John as being seated on the throne [Rev 4:1-3]; who created all things, and for His pleasure they are and were created. [Rev 4:10-11] First, John sees in Rev 1:13, in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the Son of man, which should cause us to immediately refer to Dan 7:13 (even here, GOD Almighty, the Ancient of Days, is clearly differentiated from the Messiah). The speaker than identifies himself in Rev 2:18 as the ‘Son of GOD’ It is Jesus the Messiah, the Son of GOD, the Son of man, who is speaking! So he identifies himself as He who lives, and was dead, and behold I am alive forevermore. I can’t see you point. GOD his Father is described as the one who liveth for ever & ever [Rev 4:9-10,10:6,15:7], yet he is never described as ‘was dead’. Pleaseee. In the Book of Revelation, GOD the Father and the Son of the Father are totally and always differentiated. There is simply no need to muddle the two. GOD is from everlasting to everlasting, hence he was (PAST), he is (PRESENT) and always will be (FUTURE); whilst Jesus who lives was dead! Besides the fact that he had a beginning which the Eternal GOD does not! The ‘one’ described as ‘he that liveth’ in Rev 1:18, is most certainly Jesus, the Son of GOD, who incidentally 4 times in Rev 3:12 denotes the fact that the Father is his GOD! Rev 1:18 is not speaking about GOD at all! (Incidentally I compared the Greek text of Rev 1:18 with Rev 4:9-10, 10:6, 15:7; conc. the phrase 'liveth'. It is NOT identical. GOD is clearly differentiated from the Son in these verses) So yes, you COULD describe every resurrected, immortalized saint as ‘they that liveth’; because death will no longer have any dominion over them even as death has no dominion over Christ.
Incredible. It’s absolutely incredible how you interpret scripture. I know about anthropomorphism, but what does that have no do with 1 Tim 2:5??? ABSOLUTELY NOTHING! GOD is spirit and not body ... the man Christ Jesus confirms this [John 4.24] whilst talking to the Samaritan woman, face to face. Jesus the Messiah IS a man [John 1:30, 8:40, 9:11, 10:33, Acts 2:22, 17:31; Rom 5:15, 1 Cor 15:21,47; 1 Tim 2:5] Paul is simply stating the same thing about Jesus. Jesus may have been made immortal but it doesn’t change the fact that he is a man! Paul is letting us know that there is a mediator between mortal mankind and the eternal GOD who is spirit; this mediator is the first immortalized resurrected man, Messiah Jesus. 1 Tim 2.5 is one of the plainest verses in the NT. No anthropomorphism involved at all! In fact, anthropomorphisms are used because GOD is not a man, since as you put it ”Because God is spirit and not a body, we know that these expressions do not describe Him physically but are used to help man understand truths concerning God.” Therefore, if GOD indeed had become a man AS Jesus of Nazareth or if Jesus of Nazareth were indeed the Body of GOD, there would be no need for anthropomorphisms in the New Testament, would there!!! However, see finger Luke 11:20, face Matt 18:10 (cp. Heb 9:24), hands Luke 23:46, Heb 10:31. (See also Rev 4:1-3.) Hmmm!! |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame