ArchivedThe Truth About IslamHello, Hello Omega They were six. The verses of 41:9-12 speak of overlapping actions in spans of four and two days each. The adverbs are the keys to understanding this. The verses of 11 and 12 use the adverbs "thummah" and "fa" which imply consecutiveness of action. Neither of these two, however, are used in verse 10 (the only one which mentions four days) which instead uses the adverb "wa" implying parallel, or "overlapping" actions. In other words, the grammar tells us that the four days mentioned in 10 are a continuation of the two mentioned in verse 9. The four days of "measuring the earth's sustenance" refers to the two days of the creation of the earth in addition to the two days of the "spreading out of the earth's features". For example, the world renown track and fielder Carl Lewis might say "I am now 32 years old. I started elementary school when I was 6, then I spent 12 years studying for my high-school diploma and I spent 24 years training to be the world's best long-jumper. Then I settled down and have spent the last two years taking care of my family." Does this mean that he was 18 years old when he started training for the long jump? Did he continue till he was 42 years old? If we add 6 + 12 + 24 + 2 we get 44. How then can he be "32 years old" now?. To understand this we need to notice that he did not say that he started training when he was eighteen. He did not say "then" I trained for 24 years. We now realize that he started training at the same time he started elementary school, when he was 6. He went to school and trained for track and field at the same time. After he graduated from high-school he continued to train for 12 more years. They were "overlapping" actions. Now, if someone wishes to claim that Carl Lewis' statement is contradictory since he says that he is 32 years old but "the detailed description of the breakdown of the years" works out to 44 years, and that this is a "contradiction," then that is their choice. The Noble Qur'an talks about crucifixion as punishment in Egypt. Below are the relevent verses: "Be sure I will cut off your hands and your feet on apposite sides, and I will cause you all to die on the cross."[The Noble Qur'an 7:124] (Pharaoh) said: Ye put your faith in him before I give you leave. Lo! he doubtless is your chief who taught you magic! But verily ye shall come to know. Verily I will cut off your hands and your feet alternately, and verily I will crucify you every one. [The Noble Qur'an 26:49] (Pharaoh) said: "Believe ye in Him before I give you permission? Surely this must be your leader, who has taught you magic! be sure I will cut off your hands and feet on opposite sides, and I will have you crucified on trunks of palm-trees: so shall ye know for certain, which of us can give the more severe and the more lasting punishment!" [he Noble Qur'an 20:71]. The Noble Qur'an is saying that crucifixion was a punishment during Pharaoh's time. The specifics of the punishment was cutting hands and feet on opposite sites and crucify on the trunk of the trees. The Oxford Companion To The Bible defines Crucifixion as: The act of nailing or binding a person to a cross or tree, whether for executing or for exposing the corpse. Now Omega claimed that the Noble Qur'an made an historical error by claiming that there were crucifiction in Egypt. However he just throw another silly question without any reference!!! Here's the answer to his ignorant claim: It is interesting to see if there are no records of Egyptians using crucifixion as a punishment. Why does the on-line Smith's Bible Dictionary say under Crucifixion: Crucifixion was in used among the Egyptians, Ge 40:19; the Carthaginians, the Persians, Es 7:10; the Assyrians, Scythains, Indians, Germans, and from the earliest times among the Greeks and Romans. Whether this mode of execution was known to the ancient Jews is a matter of dispute. Probably the Jews borrowed it from the Romans. It was unanimously considered the most horrible form of death. As noted in the above quote, in Genesis 40:18-19 we read the interepretation of the dream by Joseph. It is talking about the 'Pharaoh' in Joseph's time will hang the person on a tree. "This is what it means," Joseph said. "The three baskets are three days. Within three days Pharaoh will lift off your head and hang you on a tree. And the birds will eat away your flesh." [Genesis 40:18-19]. Similar story is also mentioned in the Qur'ân in the story of Joseph: "O my two companions of the prison! As to one of you, he will pour out the wine for his lord to drink: as for the other, he will hang from the cross, and the birds will eat from off his head. (so) hath been decreed that matter whereof ye twain do enquire"... [The Noble Qur'an 12:41] So, the crucifixion was practiced by the 'Pharaohs' (as well as Kings) in Egypt during the time of Joseph much before the time of Moses. Hence it would be appropriate to refer of crucifixion without labeling it as an anachronism in the time of Moses in Egypt. Further The New International Dictionary Of The Bible confirms that (Under 'Cross'): Crucifixion was one of the most cruel and barbarous forms of death known to man. It was practiced, especially in the times of war, by the Phoenicians, Carthaginians, Egyptians, and later by the Romans. So dreaded was it that even in the pre-Christian era, the cares and troubles of the life were often compared to a cross Of course, the last thing a Christian would like to do is to read his own book properly! Well here let me ask a question to Omega: “from Egyptian per-aa (great house), originally, the royal palace in ancient Egypt; the word came to be used as a synonym for the Egyptian king under the New Kingdom starting in the 18th Dynasty, 1539-1292 BC. (Pharaoh, Encyclopaedia Britannica CD 99, Standard Edition © 1994-1999 Encyclopaedia Britannica, Inc). “Pharaoh (Egyptian Great House), name originally used by the ancient Egyptians for the palace of their king. Beginning in the 18th Dynasty (1550-1307 BC) it was applied to the king himself”. (“Pharaoh”, Encyclopaedia Encarta CD 2001). From the New Kingdom onward the title pharaoh, from an Egyptian word meaning (the royal palace), was given to the kings of ancient Egypt”. (Pharaoh, The Academic American Encyclopaedia, (Electronic Version), Copyright © 1995 Grolier, Inc., Danbury, CT). “Pharaoh (Egypt. Great house), name originally used by the ancient Egyptians for the palace of their king. Beginning in the 18th Dynasty (1570-1293 BC) it was applied to the king himself”. (Pharaoh, The Funk & Wagnalls Encyclopaedia, © 1995 Funk & Wagnalls Corporation, Infopedia 2.0, SoftKey Multimedia Inc). “Pharaoh, the title of the kings of Egypt until 323 BC. In the Egyptian language the word Pharaoh means (great house). This word was originally used to describe the palace of the king. Around 1500 BC this term was applied to the king”. (Herbert Lockyer, Sr., General Editor, F.F. Bruce et al., Consulting Editors, "Pharaoh", Nelson’s Illustrated Bible Dictionary, 1986, Thomas Nelson Publishers). In his book “Egyptian Grammar: Being an Introduction to the Study of Hieroglyphs”, 1957, 3rd Edition (rev.), Oxford, p. 75", Egyptologist Sir Alan Gardiner (1879-1963) mentions that the title Pharaoh was used for the first time to point to the ruler of Egypt at the 18th dynasty, precisely in the reign of AMENHOTEP IV (ruler of Egypt between 1353 and 1335 BC). Now my question to Omega: Why the Holy Bible gave the ruler of Egypt at the time of Abraham (19th century BC) the title Pharaoh when this title was not used until the 14 or the 13 century BC??? Well, here is the most dummiest question a Christian can ask. He will judge the Noble Qur'an according to the suspected Holy Bible. He want to make the suspected Holy Bible as judge as well. The holy Bible who say that Adam first appeared in 3796 BC? The Holy Bible who who say that the ruler of Egypt at the time of Abraham is called Pharaoh? Logic my friend, Logic. We need Answers, answers, answers, please, without romantic comments please Wow, how romantic Well as I told you in my last reply, and it's always good to repeat it: Well, there is a famous story in the Holy Bible that mentions how one day some of the Jews were witnesses when Jesus was casting out a devil. At such a sight, some of the Jews who were watching said disbelievingly: "This is the Devil, The Devil helped him"!!! And he was casting out a devil, and it was dumb. And it came to pass, when the devil was gone out, the dumb spake; and the people wondered. But some of them said, He casteth out devils through Beelzebub the chief of the devils. And others, tempting him, sought of him a sign from heaven. But he, knowing their thoughts, said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and a house divided against a house falleth. If Satan also be divided against himself, how shall his kingdom stand? because ye say that I cast out devils through Beelzebub. And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your sons cast them out? therefore shall they be your judges. But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you. [Luke 11:14-20]. Now this story is rehearsed very often in churches all over the world, and people cry big tears over it, saying: "Oh! If I had been there, I would not have been as stupid as the Jews". Yet, ironically, you people did exactly what the Jews did when you saw small part of the Noble Qur'an scientific facts and all you can say is: "Oh! The Devil wrote that book"! Because you are truly backed into a corner and have no other viable answer, you resort to the quickest and cheapest excuse available just as the Jews did!!! And really one more thing: You didn't finish the list of "inspired" men who wrote the Holy Bible. Please I am still waiting. And you didn't show me how Satan was once the greatest of archangels??? Alexei |
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