"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren,
like unto thee,
and I will put my words in his mouth;
and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him." Deut.18:18.
From some some text i came across, i found out that most priests claimed that in the above verse from Deuteronomy, chapter 18, verse 18, the man Moses was referring to was Jesus.
(like unto thee), - LIKE YOU - "like Moses, and Jesus is like Moses" as what claimed by some priests.
But when asked why Jesus? They could only come up with and answer saying "Moses was a JEW and Jesus was also a JEW; secondly, Moses was a PROPHET and Jesus was also a PROPHET."
When asked for other similarities the priest got lost for words.
So is it just because, that Moses and Jesus, is a Jew, and a prophet that Jesus was the man Moses was referring to?
Well if there is only 2 criteria, we should also consider other prophets like Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist etc., because they were also ALL Jews as well as Prophets. Why should we not apply this prophency to any one of these prophets, and why only to Jesus?
Why i said muhammad? WEll there's many reasons, but i would want to make this post long- winded, therefore i would only give 3 simple reasons for yall to understand.
1) Moses and Muhammed married and begat children, but Jesus remained a bachelor all his life.
Therefore Jesus is not like Moses, but Muhummed is like Moses.
2)Moses had a father and a mother. Muhammed also had a father and a mother. But Jesus had only a mother, and no human father.
Therefore Jesus is not like Moses, but Muhummed is like Moses.
3)Both Moses and Muhummed died natural deaths, but according to Christianity, Jesus was violently killed on the cross.
Therefore Jesus is not like Moses but Muhummed is like Moses.
So there u go, 3 of the man reasons why Muhammad was the man Moses prophecies. Still not convinced, juz post reply. I will provide more reasons.