You just can't resist trying to sneak in something that could take threads off topic. However, in order to prove your "interpretation" is correct you have to show in the OT (in plain language not by interpreting words) that Jesus preexisted His birth. Now in Genesis 3:15 we are told that the Messiah would come from the seed of a woman, in Deuteronony 18 we are told the Messiah would be a prophet like Moses. Now, just these two Scriptures show your interpretation is false. Now add all the rest of the Messianic prophesies none of which tell us that the Messiah existed in the beginning with God or is God or existed as a divine entity with God.
Why should I rely on prophecies? Why not material in the NT? I've shown you passages that imply Jesus was a preexistent being. You must be aquainted with what I'm talking about. So, I think this passage can be counted as one of those. I don't mean to start a huge argument over this.