Thanks!
Already did. Don't know what Brenda's answer is going to be, though. Knowing her, it'll be a whopper.
From what I understand, the men's eyes were affected somehow, through divine intervention. So the way I explained Mark 16:12 was that since it was clear that these men's eyes had been affected, of course Jesus would have seemed to have a different form, which would be why they weren't able to recognize Him. It wasn't that He had put on a different fleshly form, as the JWs say He did. He just was not recognizable to the men because their eyes had been affected.
Does this sound right? Or am I missing the mark?