Unite,
Why did you quote your own beloved Qur'an out of context?
"Can you (O men of faith) still earnestly desire that they (the Jews) will believe in you? And verily a party (fariq) among them hear the Word of God, then they pervert it knowingly after they have understood it. And when they meet the believers they say, ‘We believe,’ but when they meet each other in private they say, ‘Why do you tell them what God has revealed to you (in the Torah), that they may engage you in argument about it before their God? What do you not understand?’ Do they not know that God knows what they conceal and what they make public? Among them are unlettered folk who know the Scripture not except from hearsay. THEY BUT GUESS." S. 2:75-78.
It is obvious that this passage is saying that certain Jews during the days of Muhammad, knew nothing of their respective scriptures in which they falsified the revelation for a profit. Clearly the verses before 2:79 confirms that there were Jews (and Christians) who knew the 'Book', studying it in truth.
All the Qur'an has done is confirm that their were men that perverted the truth for their own gain....nothing more.
Sura 3:199 clearly states that there were many who would not falsify revelation for profit.
Sura 3:113-114:
"Not all of them are alike. Some of the People of the Book are an upright people. They recite the signs (or verses) of God in the night season and they bow down worshipping. They believe in God and the last day. They command what is just, and forbid what is wrong and they hasten in good works, and they are of the righteous.
So, the Qur'an DOES NOT confirm that the 'Book' (Bible) is textually corrupted.